156-215.81.20 Dumps Questions - Effective Way to Get Certified

156-215.81.20 Dumps Questions – Effective Way to Get Certified

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August 23, 2024

If you're in the field of Check Point, you know how important it is to stay up-to-date with the latest knowledge and skills to protect your organization's networks and data. One way to do that is by obtaining CCSA R81.20, specifically the 156-215.81.20 exam. While preparing for the 156-215.81.20 exam, you might consider using 156-215.81.20 dumps to help you familiarize yourself with the exam format and content. These 156-215.81.20 exam dumps questions can be an effective way to gauge your knowledge and identify areas where you may need additional study. Study online free 156-215.81.20 exam dumps below.

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1. An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

The Gateway is an SMB device

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

2. Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Application Control

Threat Emulation

Logging and Status

Monitoring

3. AdminA and AdminB are both logged into SmartConsole.

What does it mean if AdminB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

A. Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published.

B. Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available.

C. Rule is locked by AdminB because the save button has not been pressed.

D. Rule is locked by AdminB because the rule is currently being edited.

4. You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet.

How can you fix this?

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check “Enable Identity Captive Portal”

On the Security Management Server object, check the box “Identity Logging”

5. In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

6. Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Accept all encrypted traffic

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Specific VPN Communities

7. Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

All-in-one (stand-alone)

CloudGuard

Distributed

Bridge Mode

8. The Online Activation method is available for Check Point manufactured appliances.

How does the administrator use the Online Activation method?

The SmartLicensing GUI tool must be launched from the SmartConsole for the Online Activation tool to start automatically.

No action is required if the firewall has internet access and a DNS server to resolve domain names.

Using the Gaia First Time Configuration Wizard, the appliance connects to the Check Point User Center and downloads all necessary licenses and contracts.

The cpinfo command must be run on the firewall with the switch -online-license-activation.

9. Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

CPM

HTTPS

FWD

CPD

10. Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

vpn tu tlist

vpn tu

cpview

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11. In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

"Inspect", "Bypass"

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"

"Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"

"Detect", "Bypass"

12. What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Monitoring the status of processes

Sending and receiving logs

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server

Generating and modifying certificates

13. What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

14. Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create user definitions on a(n) ___________ Server.

SecurID

LDAP

NT domain

SMTP

15. Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats

Proactively detects threats

Delivers file with original content

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed

16. What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

17. Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Slow path

Firewall path

Medium path

Accelerated path

18. Both major kinds of NAT support Hide and Static NAT. However, one offers more flexibility.

Which statement is true?

Manual NAT can offer more flexibility than Automatic NA

Dynamic Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading can offer more flexibility than Port Address Translation.

Dynamic NAT with Port Address Translation can offer more flexibility than Network Address Translation (NAT) Overloading.

Automatic NAT can offer more flexibility than Manual NA

19. What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

Stateful Inspection. Firewall Blade, and URL'Application Blade

Packet Filtenng. Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

Firewall Blade. URL/Application Blade and IPS

Stateful Inspection. URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

20. Of all the Check Point components in your network, which one changes most often and should be backed up most frequently?

SmartManager

SmartConsole

Security Gateway

Security Management Server

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21. Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or__________.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

On specific tunnels in the community

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

22. Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

Quicker than Full sync

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members

23. When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

SmartConsole installed device

Check Point user center

Security Management Server

Security Gateway

24. You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information.

What command would you use to restore this backup?

restore_backup

import backup

cp_merge

migrate import

25. Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Full

Custom

Complete

Light

26. Which of the following is considered to be the more secure and preferred VPN authentication method?

Password

Certificate

MD5

Pre-shared secret

27. Which of the following is a valid deployment option?

CloudSec deployment

Disliked deployment

Router only deployment

Standalone deployment

28. To view the policy installation history for each gateway, which tool would an administrator use?

Revisions

Gateway installations

Installation history

Gateway history

29. What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

A host route to route to the destination IP

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

30. What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate

management systems?

Shared Secret Passwords

Unique Passwords

Shared User Certificates

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

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31. AdminA and AdminB are both logged in on SmartConsole What does it mean if AdmmB sees a lock icon on a rule? Choose the BEST answer.

Rule is locked by AdminA and will be made available if the session is published

Rule is locked by AdminA because the rule is currently being edited

Rule is locked by AdminA and if the session is saved, the rule will be made available

Rule is locked by AdminA because the save button has not been pressed

32. Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by?

ELA and CPD

FWD and LEA

FWD and CPLOG

ELA and CPLOG

33. Fill in the blank Once a license is activated, a___________should be installed.

Security Gateway Contract file

Service Contract file

License Management file

License Contract file

34. Fill in the blanks: A Check Point software license consists of a__________ and _______.

Software blade; software container

Software package: signature

Signature; software blade

Software container software package

35. Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.

Upper; Application

First two; Internet

Lower; Application

First two; Transport

36. In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories.

Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Limit

Resource

Custom Application / Site

Network Object

37. Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

show cluster state

show active cluster

show clusters

show running cluster

38. Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

the user connects and authenticates

office mode is initiated

the user requests a connection

the user connects

39. Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Word Document (docx)

Comma Separated Value (csv)

Portable Document Format (pdf)

Text (txt)

40. How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

One

Three

Two

Infinite

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41. When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?

SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied immediately. Installing policy is not required.

The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.

The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.

The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log. Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.

42. When dealing with policy layers, what two layer types can be utilized?

Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers

Ordered Layers and Inline Layers

Structured Layers and Overlap Layers

R81.X does not support Layers.

43. Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?

Remote Access

UserCheck

AD Query

RADIUS

44. Which Threat Prevention Profile is not included by default in R80 Management?

Basic C Provides reliable protection on a range of non-HTTP protocols for servers, with minimal impact on network performance

Optimized C Provides excellent protection for common network products and protocols against recent or popular attacks

Strict C Provides a wide coverage for all products and protocols, with impact on network performance

Recommended C Provides all protection for all common network products and servers, with impact on network performance

45. SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs.

What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Smart Cloud Services

Load Sharing Mode Services

Threat Agent Solution

Public Cloud Services

46. What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?

In R80 all Network Address Translation is done automatically and there is no need for manually defined NAT-rules.

Network Address Translation of RFC1918-compliant networks is needed to access the Internet.

Network Address Translation is desired for some services, but not for others.

The public IP-address is different from the gateway’s external IP

47. The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Major version upgrades to R77.30

Only Jumbo HFA’s and hotfixes

Only major version upgrades to R80.10

All upgrades

48. Which of the following statements about Site-to-Site VPN Domain-based is NOT true?

Route-based― The Security Gateways will have a Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) for each VPN Tunnel with a peer VPN Gateway. The Routing Table can have routes to forward traffic to these VTls. Any traffic routed through a VTI is automatically identified as VPN Traffic and is passed through the VPN Tunnel associated with the VT

Domain-based― VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a service or user that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

Domain-based― VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. A VPN domain is a host or network that can send or receive VPN traffic through a VPN Gateway.

Domain-based― VPN domains are pre-defined for all VPN Gateways. When the Security Gateway encounters traffic originating from one VPN Domain with the destination to a VPN Domain of another VPN Gateway, that traffic is identified as VPN traffic and is sent through the VPN Tunnel between the two Gateways.

49. What is the purpose of the Stealth Rule?

To prevent users from directly connecting to a Security Gateway.

To reduce the number of rules in the database.

To reduce the amount of logs for performance issues.

To hide the gateway from the Internet.

50. In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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51. If there are two administrators logged in at the same time to the SmartConsole, and there are objects locked for editing, what must be done to make them available to other administrators? Choose the BEST answer

Save and install the Policy

Delete older versions of database

Revert the session.

Publish or discard the session

52. What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Access Role

User Group

SmartDirectory Group

Group Template

53. When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?

Log, send snmp trap, email

Drop packet, alert, none

Log, alert, none

Log, allow packets, email

54. Check Point licenses come in two forms.

What are those forms?

Security Gateway and Security Management.

On-premise and Public Cloud

Central and Local.

Access Control and Threat Prevention.

55. Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

56. Which Threat Prevention profile uses sanitization technology?

Cloud/data Center

perimeter

Sandbox

Guest Network

57. What is the best sync method in the ClusterXL deployment?

Use 1 cluster + 1st sync

Use 1 dedicated sync interface

Use 3 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync + 3rd sync

Use 2 clusters + 1st sync + 2nd sync

58. When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

59. When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root partition?

Any size

Less than 20GB

More than 10GB and less than 20 GB

At least 20GB

60. Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

The Gaia operating system only.

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61. Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Application Control

Threat Emulation

Anti-Virus

Advanced Networking Blade

62. By default, which port does the WebUI listen on?

8080

4434

443

63. What is the order of NAT priorities?

IP pool NAT static NA

hide NAT

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

64. You want to set up a VPN tunnel to a external gateway. You had to make sure that the IKE P2 SA will only be established between two subnets and not all subnets defined in the default VPN domain of your gateway.

A. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Management add the following line to the $FWDIR/conf/user.def.FWI file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { );

B. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Selecting the local gateway in the Community you can set the VPN Domain to 'User defined' and put in the local network.

C. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Gateway add the following line to the $FWDlR/cont/user.def.FW1 file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { };

D. In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Go to Security Policies / Access Control and create an in-line layer rule with source and destination containing the two networks used for the IKE P2 S

A. Put the name of the Community in the VPN column.

65. Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now is very fast.

New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install

Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results

SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway

The amount of logs been store is less than the usual in older versions

66. Which of the following is true about Stateful Inspection?

Stateful Inspection tracks state using two tables, one for incoming traffic and one for outgoing traffic

Stateful Inspection looks at both the headers of packets, as well as deeply examining their content.

Stateful Inspection requires that a server reply to a request, in order to track a connection's state

Stateful Inspection requires two rules, one for outgoing traffic and one for incoming traffic.

67. Which Check Point Software Wade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Firewall

Identity Awareness

Application Control

URL Filtering

68. What are valid authentication methods for mutual authenticating the VPN gateways?

Pre-shared Secret and PKI Certificates

PKI Certificates and Kerberos Tickets

Pre-Shared Secrets and Kerberos Ticket

PKI Certificates and DynamiciD OTP

69. Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

STATE Engine

TRACK Engine

RECORD Engine

INSPECT Engine

70. What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Use Office Mode

Use identity agents

Share user identities between gateways

Use captive portal

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71. What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

Go to Manage&Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

Go to Application&url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

72. Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Plug-and-play (Trial) and Evaluation

Perpetual and Trial

Evaluation and Subscription

Subscription and Perpetual

73. To view statistics on detected threats, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Protections

IPS Protections

Profiles

ThreatWiki

74. Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Accept all encrypted traffic

Specific VPN Communities

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

75. When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?

Access Role

User Group

SmartDirectory Group

Group Template

76. Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Symmetric routing

Failovers

Asymmetric routing

Anti-Spoofing

77. Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?

Client machine IP address.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

Log server IP address.

Gateway proxy IP address.

78. After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

79. What is the main objective when using Application Control?

To filter out specific content.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

To see what users are doing.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

80. Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

3DES

AES-128

DES

AES-256

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81. Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Logs & Monitoring

Smart Event

Gateways & Severs Tab

SmartView Monitor

82. When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

Accounting Log

Extended Log

Log

Detailed Log

83. Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

RADIUS

Check Point password

TACACS

SecurlD

84. In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Standalone

Remote

Distributed

Bridge Mode

85. Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

Accept all encrypted traffic

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

Specific VPN Communities

86. In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

SmartConsole

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

Security Management Server

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

87. Using AD Query, the security gateway connections to the Active Directory Domain Controllers using what protocol?

Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

88. Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Eyeglasses

Pencil

Padlock

Book

89. Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

SmartUpdate

cpconfig

SmartConsole

sysconfig

90. Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

Threat Emulation

Anti-Malware

Anti-Virus

Threat Extraction

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91. For Automatic Hide NAT rules created by the administrator what is a TRUE statement?

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is enabled by default

Automate NAT rules are supported for Network objects only.

Automatic NAT rules are supported for Host objects only.

Source Port Address Translation (PAT) is disabled by default

92. How Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VP

Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client

93. Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

I have changed this rule

Someone else has changed this rule

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

94. What are two basic rules Check Point recommending for building an effective security policy?

Accept Rule and Drop Rule

Cleanup Rule and Stealth Rule

Explicit Rule and Implied Rule

NAT Rule and Reject Rule

95. Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

All options stop Check Point processes

backup

migrate export

snapshot

96. Stateful Inspection compiles and registers connections where?

Connection Cache

State Cache

State Table

Network Table

97. When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

98. Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel.

Which port is used for this?

UDP port 265

TCP port 265

UDP port 256

TCP port 256

99. Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

100. The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh.

How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

Page 11 of 13

101. Name the authentication method that requires token authenticator.

SecureID

Radius

DynamicID

TACACS

102. Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Data Loss Prevention

Antivirus

Application Control

NAT

103. Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Static; source

Simple; source

Hide; destination

Hide; source

104. When a gateway requires user information for authentication, what order does it query servers for user information?

First - Internal user database, then LDAP servers in order of priority, finally the generic external user profile

First the Internal user database, then generic external user profile, finally LDAP servers in order of priority.

First the highest priority LDAP server, then the internal user database, then lower priority LDAP servers, finally the generic external profile

The external generic profile, then the internal user database finally the LDAP servers in order of priority.

105. Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.

Security Gateway

Management container

Management server

Security Gateway container

106. Fill in the blank: Each cluster, at a minimum, should have at least ___________ interfaces.

Five

Two

Three

Four

107. When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

108. Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target

installation Security Gateways.

User and objects databases

Network databases

SmartConsole databases

User databases

109. True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

True, CLI is the prefer method for Licensing

False, Central License are handled via Security Management Server

False, Central License are installed via Gaia on Security Gateways

True, Central License can be installed with CPLIC command on a Security Gateway

110. From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Verify a Security Policy

Open a terminal shell

Add a static route

View Security Management GUI Clients

Page 12 of 13

111. A network administrator has informed you that they have identified a malicious host on the network, and instructed you to block it. Corporate policy dictates that firewall policy changes cannot be made at this time.

What tool can you use to block this traffic?

Anti-Bot protection

Anti-Malware protection

Policy-based routing

Suspicious Activity Monitoring (SAM) rules

112. Which of the following methods can be used to update the trusted log server regarding the policy and configuration changes performed on the Security Management Server?

Save Policy

Install Database

Save session

Install Policy

113. Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

sysdown

exit

halt

shut-down

114. Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _____.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

115. Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

116. What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

117. When using Automatic Hide NAT, what is enabled by default?

Source Port Address Translation (PAT)

Static NAT

Static Route

HTTPS Inspection

118. Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ____ or ____

GaiaUI; command line interface (serial console only)

Gaia Interface; Gaia Ultimate Shell

Command line interface; GAiA Portal

Web Ultimate Interface; Gaia Interface (SSH)

119. Which two Identity Awareness daemons are used to support identity sharing?

Policy Activation Point (PAP) and Policy Decision Point (PDP)

Policy Manipulation Point (PMP) and Policy Activation Point (PAP)

Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) and Policy Manipulation Point (PMP)

Policy Decision Point (PDP) and Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)

120. Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

Page 13 of 13

121. What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

RFC 1939

RFC 1950

RFC 1918

RFC 793

122. Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)

Partial log

Log

Network log

Full log

123. Choose what BEST describes a Session

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

Starts when an Administrator logs in through SmartConsole and ends when the Administrator logs out.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole

124. Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

System backup

Save Configuration

Migrate

snapshot

125. In the Check Point three-tiered architecture, which of the following is NOT a function of the Security Management Server?

Display policies and logs on the administrator's workstation.

Processing and sending alerts such as SNMP traps and email notifications.

Verify and compile Security Policies.

Store firewall logs to hard drive storage.

126. Which of the following is NOT a method used by Identity Awareness for acquiring identity?

Remote Access

Cloud IdP (Identity Provider)

Active Directory Query

RADIUS

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