100-160 Dumps Guarantee You Pass 100-160 Exam Easily

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November 21, 2024

As new threats and vulnerabilities emerge, the 100-160 exam is updated to reflect the latest trends in CCST. By using 100-160 exam dumps questions, you can ensure that you're staying up-to-date with the latest exam content and are fully prepared to address new challenges in Cisco Certified Support Technician (CCST) Cybersecurity. Cisco 100-160 exam dumps questions can help you optimize your preparation and ensure that you're fully prepared for the exam. Practice free Cisco 100-160 exam dumps questions below.

Page 1 of 11

1. Which protocol is used for communication between web browsers and web servers?

ICMP

TCP

UDP

HTTP

2. What is the purpose of multi-factor authentication?

To provide multiple layers of security by requiring users to provide more than one form of identification

To simplify the login process by only requiring one form of identification

To restrict access to certain users by requiring additional authorization

To prevent unauthorized access by encrypting user credentials

3. Which of the following tools is commonly used to detect intrusions on a network?

Microsoft Office Suite

Snort

Apache Tomcat

Wireshark

4. You are reviewing the Application log on a Windows computer. You see an event with an error-level message as shown.

What can you determine about the application that generated the event message?

The application is currently running much slower than expected.

The application experienced a significant problem that caused it to fail.

The application recovered from an event without loss of functionality.

The application loaded and ran successfully without issues.

5. Which command-line tool is commonly used to display active network connections?

ping

tcpdump

netstat

nslookup

6. Which of the following is a key principle of access management?

Using the same access controls for all types of resources

Granting access based solely on job titles

Implementing least privilege and need-to-know principles

Providing open and unrestricted access to all users

7. Which technology acts as a barrier between an internal network and external networks, filtering network traffic based on predefined security rules?

Server

Firewall

IPS

IDS

8. What action should be taken when a user reports a suspicious email with a potential phishing link?

Click on the link to verify its validity before taking any action.

Forward the email to other users to raise awareness about potential threats.

Escalate the issue to the security team for further investigation.

Delete the email and inform the user that it is safe to proceed.

9. Which of the following access control methods is the most secure?

Biometric authentication

Multi-factor authentication

Single-factor authentication

Password-based authentication

10. What is the primary function of a server in a network infrastructure?

Monitor network traffic

Filter incoming and outgoing traffic

Detect and prevent intrusions

Store and manage files

Page 2 of 11

11. Which of the following updates is responsible for ensuring proper communication between hardware devices and the operating system?

Device drivers

Windows Update

Application updates

Firmware updates

12. DRAG DROP

Move each definition from the list on the left to the correct CIA Triad term on the right. Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct answer.

13. Which of the following logging mechanisms is commonly used in Windows environments to monitor system and application events?

Audit logs

Syslog

System and application logs

Event Viewer

14. What is the purpose of conducting assessments of IT systems in the context of information security and change management?

All of the above

To assess the potential impact of changes on overall system performance

To identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the system

To determine the level of compliance with regulatory requirements

15. Which of the following is the primary objective of vulnerability assessment in cybersecurity?

To determine the likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited.

To identify and remove all vulnerabilities from a system.

To assess the impact of identified vulnerabilities on the system.

To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security controls.

16. What is the purpose of an Access Control List (ACL) in cybersecurity?

To encrypt traffic between two networks

To filter network traffic based on predefined rules

To monitor network traffic for potential security threats

To authenticate users before granting them access

17. Which of the following best defines the term "phishing" in the context of cybersecurity?

Impersonating a trusted entity to deceive individuals into revealing sensitive information

An unauthorized individual gaining access to a network by exploiting vulnerabilities

Sending unsolicited emails to a large number of recipients for advertising purposes

Using malware to gain control over a remote computer system

18. Which of the following is a commonly used endpoint security solution?

Encryption

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Firewall

Antivirus

19. What is the purpose of using an application firewall in a cybersecurity setup?

To encrypt network traffic between applications

To perform vulnerability scanning of applications

To increase the speed and performance of applications

To block malicious incoming requests and attacks aimed at the application

20. Which notation is used by IPv6?

Decimal notation

Octal notation

Hexadecimal notation

Binary notation

Page 3 of 11

21. What is the purpose of a firewall in a network security system?

To prevent unauthorized access to or from private networks

To scan and filter network traffic for potential threats

To encrypt data transmitted over the network

To provide secure remote access to the network

22. What is the primary objective of identifying vulnerabilities in cybersecurity?

To enhance the performance of a network or system.

To keep the existence of vulnerabilities hidden from attackers.

To fix and eliminate weaknesses in a network or system.

To develop efficient attack methods.

23. Which of the following elements are part of cybersecurity incident response?

Prevention, Monitoring, Compliance, Remediation

Assessment, Authorization, Authentication, Accounting

Identification, Recovery, Mitigation, Restoration

Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication

24. Which of the following statements best describes the impact of compliance frameworks on incident handling?

Compliance frameworks have no impact on incident handling.

Compliance frameworks focus primarily on prevention, not incident handling.

Compliance frameworks establish standards and guidelines for incident handling.

Compliance frameworks are only relevant for incident response teams.

25. Which of the following is a common vulnerability management practice?

Restricting network access based on IP addresses.

Regularly patching software and operating systems.

Encrypting all data at rest in a database.

Installing antivirus software on all company devices.

26. Which of the following is an example of a data security principle?

Least Privilege

Session Management

ARP Spoofing

Ciphertext

27. Which aspect of the Diamond Model represents the "Infrastructure" used by threat actors?

Adversary

Victim

Capability

Campaign

28. Which of the following is a characteristic of weak encryption algorithms?

They support secure communication protocols.

They are susceptible to cryptanalysis attacks.

They are resistant to brute force attacks.

They provide encryption keys with longer bit lengths.

29. Which of the following is not a component of risk management?

Risk identification.

Risk assessment.

Risk monitoring.

Risk elimination.

30. Which of the following best defines a vulnerability assessment in the context of cybersecurity?

A process that determines the level of risk associated with a cybersecurity incident.

A process that identifies potential cybersecurity threats in an organization.

A process that mitigates the impact of cybersecurity incidents on an organization.

A process that identifies potential security flaws or weaknesses in a system.

Page 4 of 11

31. Which of the following is an example of a secure remote access technology?

SNMP

SSH

Telnet

FTP

32. Which wireless security protocol provides the strongest protection for a home or small business network?

WEP

WPA

WPA2 with AES

WPA3

33. Which of the following techniques is commonly used for monitoring security events "as they occur"?

Access control lists (ACL)

Vulnerability scanning

Firewall configuration

Intrusion detection systems (IDS)

34. Which of the following best describes the concept of automation in cybersecurity testing?

Implementing security controls to prevent attacks

Using software and tools to automatically conduct security tests

Performing physical tests on network infrastructure

Conducting manual security tests

35. What is a social engineering attack?

An attack that targets physical infrastructure

An attack that attempts to overload a network with excessive traffic

An attack that intercepts wireless network packets

An attack that manipulates people to obtain sensitive information

36. What is configuration management in the context of cybersecurity?

Managing and securing access to network devices

Protecting the physical infrastructure of an organization

Establishing role-based access controls

Ensuring consistency and control over the configuration of IT systems

37. What is one of the main objectives of documenting cybersecurity incidents?

To create a historical record of incidents for legal purposes

To assign blame to individuals responsible for the incident

To minimize the impact of cyber attacks

To divert attention from the incident

38. Which of the following is an example of a corrective control?

Antivirus software

User awareness training

Intrusion prevention system

Backup and recovery

39. What is the purpose of conducting a hardware inventory assessment on an endpoint system?

To determine software compatibility requirements

To ensure compliance with hardware standards

To identify potential gaps in security policies

To track changes made to hardware configurations

40. What is tailgating in the context of cybersecurity?

A type of phishing attack that targets specific individuals or organizations.

A physical attack where an unauthorized person gains entry to a restricted area by following closely behind an authorized person.

A form of social engineering attack that uses SMS or text messages to trick victims into revealing sensitive information.

A cyber attack where an attacker manipulates and deceives an individual to reveal sensitive information.

Page 5 of 11

41. What is an insider threat?

A threat posed by an individual with authorized access to an organization's systems and data.

A vulnerability in an organization's network infrastructure.

The accidental disclosure of sensitive information.

A security breach caused by an external attacker.

42. Which endpoint security mechanism is used to secure data transmitted between the endpoint and the

network?

Firewall

Antivirus

Encryption

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

43. What is the primary advantage of using reputation-based detection as a threat intelligence technique?

It provides real-time detection of zero-day threats.

It helps block threats based on their historical behavior or reputation.

It requires less computational resources compared to other techniques.

It can detect new or emerging threats based on their behaviors.

44. What is the purpose of Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems?

To analyze network traffic and detect potential security threats.

To centrally collect, store, and analyze logs from various systems to detect and respond to security incidents.

To encrypt sensitive data to protect it from unauthorized access.

To authenticate and authorize users to access network resources.

45. Which of the following is a benefit of implementing a comprehensive vulnerability management program?

It reduces the need for security testing and audits.

It helps prevent the loss or compromise of sensitive data.

It guarantees protection against all types of cyber threats.

It eliminates the need for system administrators to manage security updates.

46. Which technology is responsible for monitoring network traffic and identifying potential threats?

IDS

Firewall

Server

IPS

47. Which of the following network technologies is commonly used to connect devices within a local area network (LAN)?

Wi-Fi

Ethernet

DSL

VPN

48. Which approach to risk management involves accepting the potential risk and not taking any specific action to mitigate it?

Risk acceptance.

Risk mitigation.

Risk transfer.

Risk avoidance.

49. What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) do in endpoint security?

Prevents unauthorized access to the endpoint

Detects and alerts on suspicious activities on the endpoint

Encrypts the data transmitted between the endpoint and the network

Identifies and blocks malware on the endpoint

50. What is the purpose of performing a vulnerability scan?

To encrypt sensitive data transmission

To assess the performance and latency of network devices

To identify any exploitable weaknesses in a system or network

To detect and block malicious network traffic

Page 6 of 11

51. What is the main motivation for attackers to conduct cyber attacks?

Knowledge

Financial gain

Curiosity

Revenge

52. Which compliance framework is primarily concerned with securing payment card data and ensuring it is protected against unauthorized access?

HIPAA

GDPR

PCI-DSS

FERPA

53. What is the general motivation behind an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

Publicity

Random disruption

Financial gain

Revenge

54. Which of the following is a common authentication protocol used in wireless networks?

FTP

WPA

SSH

SMTP

55. Which of the following is true about security policies and procedures?

They should be regularly reviewed and updated to reflect changing threats and technologies

They should only be accessible to the IT department.

They should be documented once and never changed.

They should be kept confidential and not shared with employees.

56. Which encryption method uses a single key to both encrypt and decrypt data?

SSL/TLS

Symmetric encryption

Hashing

Asymmetric encryption

57. A threat actor sets up a rogue access point (AP) at a local cafe. The rogue AP captures traffic and then forwards the traffic to the cafe AP.

Which type of attack does this scenario describe?

Reconnaissance

Man-in-the-middle

DDoS

Ransomware

58. How can the preservation of evidence be ensured during a cybersecurity investigation?

Documenting the investigation process.

Implementing strong network security controls.

Utilizing forensic imaging tools for data collection.

Conducting a thorough analysis of network logs.

59. Which of the following is a preventive control that can help in reducing the risk of future incidents?

Creating secure backups of critical data

Implementing strong access controls and authentication mechanisms

Regularly updating antivirus signatures

Conducting periodic employee training on incident response

60. What is one of the ethical principles that guide the code of ethics for cybersecurity professionals?

Impersonation

Confidentiality

Anonymity

Discrimination

Page 7 of 11

61. Which of the following is a primary purpose of software inventory in a cybersecurity program?

Monitoring user access and permissions

Identifying vulnerabilities and patch requirements

Analyzing network traffic for potential threats

Ensuring compliance with software licensing agreements

62. Which of the following is a key element of management in cybersecurity?

Network vulnerability scanning

Firewall configuration

Incident response planning

Intrusion detection system deployment

63. Which of the following log file entries would most likely indicate a successful brute-force attack on an authentication system?

"Password reset request from user 'jane' received and processed."

"Successful login attempt from user 'admin' at 10:15:32."

"Multiple failed login attempts from IP address 192.168.1.100 within a short time."

"Failed login attempt from user 'bob' at 11:23:45 due to incorrect password."

64. What is the primary goal of the Cyber Kill Chain framework?

To attribute cyberattacks to a specific threat actor

To detect and respond to cyberattacks early

To analyze the impacts of cyberattacks after they occur

To prevent cyberattacks from occurring

65. What is the main purpose of port scanning in cybersecurity?

To gather information about potential targets on the internet

To exploit vulnerabilities in the target system

To identify open ports and services running on a target system

To detect intrusions and prevent unauthorized access

66. Which of the following protocols can be used to securely transfer files over a network?

HTTP

FTP

SMTP

DNS

67. Which of the following is an example of a human-caused disaster?

Tornado

Flood

Earthquake

Cyberattack

68. Which of the following is an example of a preventive control?

Incident response plan

User access log

Firewall

Intrusion detection system

69. What is the most effective method to identify and remove unknown malware?

Disconnecting the infected system from the network

Reinstalling the operating system

Scanning the system with multiple antivirus programs

Analyzing the behavior of the suspicious program

70. Why is it important to maintain the chain of custody when handling digital evidence?

To accelerate the analysis of the evidence.

To prevent unauthorized access or tampering.

To ensure the evidence is stored securely.

To recover lost or deleted data from the evidence.

Page 8 of 11

71. What is the purpose of Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVEs)?

To protect sensitive information from unauthorized access.

To evaluate the effectiveness of cybersecurity measures.

To identify hackers and cybercriminals.

To categorize and provide unique identifiers for known vulnerabilities.

72. What is the purpose of backup and recovery procedures in computer operations?

To facilitate disaster recovery

To ensure data integrity

To detect and respond to security incidents

To prevent unauthorized access

73. Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Security information and event management (SIEM) system

Access control list (ACL)

Patch management

Encryption

74. Which of the following is the most secure and recommended method for storing sensitive user data in a database?

Storing the data in plain text

Using symmetric encryption

Using hashing algorithms

Using asymmetric encryption

75. What term refers to the process of creating a virtual version of a device or resource, such as a server or a network?

Virtualization

DMZ

Cloud

Proxy

76. Your supervisor tells you that you will participate in a CVSS assessment.

What will you be doing?

Performing penetration tests on internal network devices and end systems

Analyzing host logs to identify abnormal activities

Interviewing users to determine their level of cybersecurity awareness

Evaluating end system security and scoring software vulnerabilities

77. How do threat actors launch ransomware attacks on organizations?

They implant malware to collect data from the corporation’s financial system.

They deface an organization’s public-facing website.

They lock data and deny access to the data until they receive money.

They secretly spy on employees and collect employees’ personal information.

78. What is the primary purpose of packet captures in identifying suspicious events in a cybersecurity context?

To backup network configurations and restore them in case of failure.

To monitor network devices and perform vulnerability assessments.

To analyze network traffic and identify potential indicators of compromise.

To encrypt network traffic and secure sensitive information.

79. What is the purpose of managing communication proactively before an event?

To prevent and mitigate security incidents

To monitor and analyze network traffic

To update antivirus software and security patches

To respond and recover from security incidents

80. Which of the following is an important step during the containment phase of incident handling?

Preserving evidence for forensic investigation

Notifying law enforcement agencies

Implementing temporary workarounds to mitigate the impact

Identifying the root cause of the incident

Page 9 of 11

81. Which technology is responsible for managing cryptographic keys, digital certificates, and providing other security-related services?

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

Firewall

82. Which compliance framework lays out guidelines for protecting the privacy of student education records in educational institutions?

HIPAA

PCI-DSS

FERPA

GDPR

83. What is the primary purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

To encrypt email communications

To secure wireless network connections

To establish a secure remote connection over a public network

To protect against malware attacks

84. Which of the following is a principle of data security?

Encryption

Firewall

Intrusion Detection System

Data Masking

85. What is the main purpose of a disaster recovery plan?

Recovering data after a disaster

Preventing disasters from occurring

Minimizing the impact of disasters

Identifying potential threats and vulnerabilities

86. Which of the following is an example of a public cloud service?

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Amazon Web Services (AWS)

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Firewall

87. Which of the following is an industry-standard tool commonly used for vulnerability scanning?

Nessus

MacAfee Endpoint Security

Apache HTTP Server

Microsoft Excel

88. Which technology actively inspects incoming and outgoing network traffic and takes immediate action to prevent security threats?

Firewall

IPS

Server

IDS

89. What is an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

A vulnerability in network communication protocols.

A cyberattack that compromises multiple devices simultaneously.

A sophisticated and targeted attack that aims to gain unauthorized access and maintain persistence over a long period.

A type of malware that spreads rapidly through a network.

90. DRAG DROP

Move each worm mitigation step from the list on the left to the correct description on the right. Note: You will receive partial credit for each correct answer.

Page 10 of 11

91. What is a denial of service (DoS) attack?

A technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information through deception.

A software program that is designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to a computer system.

A form of cyber attack that attempts to gain unauthorized access to a network.

An attack that overwhelms a target system with a flood of traffic or requests, rendering it inaccessible to legitimate users.

92. Which of the following is a best practice for managing security policies and procedures?

Implementing a regular review process for security policies

Relying solely on default security settings

Allowing users to create and manage their own security policies

Not documenting the security policies and procedures

93. Which of the following best describes the purpose of an information security assessment?

To identify and mitigate security vulnerabilities and risks

To create a comprehensive inventory of IT assets

To determine the level of compliance with industry standards and regulations

To assess the impact of changes on organizational processes

94. Which of the following is a common method used by threat actors to gain access in an Advanced Persistent Threat (APT)?

Social engineering techniques

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks

Firewall misconfigurations

Application vulnerabilities

95. Which technology is commonly used to monitor network data and identify security incidents?

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)

Firewall

96. Which encryption algorithm is commonly used for securing wireless network communication?

RC4

SSL

AES

DES

97. What is the purpose of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

To prevent the occurrence of disasters or disruptive events

To provide a secondary data storage location for backup purposes

To regularly test the effectiveness of backup systems and processes

To outline procedures and strategies for recovering critical systems and data after a disaster

98. What is malware?

A form of cyber attack that attempts to gain unauthorized access to a network.

A software program that is designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to a computer system.

A technique used by attackers to obtain sensitive information through deception.

A network of compromised computers used to carry out coordinated attacks.

99. Which of the following features help to secure a wireless SoHo network from unauthorized access?

Default admin credentials

Weak encryption

MAC filtering

SSID broadcast

100. Which of the following activities is typically associated with reconnaissance in cybersecurity?

Preventing unauthorized access

Exploiting vulnerabilities

Gathering information about the target network

Identifying vulnerable systems

Page 11 of 11

101. Which of the following is an example of multifactor authentication?

Using a fingerprint scan only

Using a biometric scan and a passcode

Using a username and password only

Using a smart card and a PIN

102. Which macOS security feature encrypts the entire macOS volume?

FileVault

Gatekeeper

System Integrity Protection (SIP)

XProtect

103. What is the purpose of backup in the context of disaster recovery and business continuity?

To replicate data in real-time for immediate failover during a disaster event

To ensure physical security of data storage facilities

To monitor and identify potential risks and threats to critical systems

To create a secondary copy of data for future restoration purposes

104. Which technology focuses on creating rules and correlation logic to identify security incidents based on collected network data?

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response)

Firewall

IDS (Intrusion Detection System)

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management)

105. Why is it necessary to update firmware to the latest version?

To support the latest operating systems and applications

To patch firmware in the kernel of the operating system

To correct security holes and weaknesses

To explore new hardware features

106. Which network security feature helps protect against unauthorized data access and ensures confidentiality of sensitive information?

Firewall

VPN

Intrusion Detection System

Antivirus

107. Which of the following is an important aspect of ensuring that endpoint systems meet security policies and standards?

Implementing software firewalls

Enforcing strong password policies

Conducting periodic software audits

Regularly updating firmware

108. Your manager asks you to review the output of some vulnerability scans and report anything that may require escalation.

Which two findings should you report for further investigation as potential security vulnerabilities? (Choose 2.)

Encrypted passwords

Disabled firewalls

Open ports

SSH packets

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