Use FCSS_SDW_AR-7.4 Dumps to Obtain Fortinet Certification

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June 10, 2025

If you're serious about obtaining the FCSS In Network Security certification, practicing with Fortinet FCSS_SDW_AR-7.4 dumps questions is a must. By doing so, you'll become familiar with the exam format, identify knowledge gaps, develop time management skills, boost your confidence, and increase your chances of success. So, start practicing FCSS_SDW_AR-7.4 exam dumps today and give yourself the best chance of passing the FCSS_SDW_AR-7.4 exam! Test free FCSS - SD-WAN 7.4 Architect FCSS_SDW_AR-7.4 exam dumps below.

Page 1 of 3

1. Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A

Exhibit B

Exhibit A shows an SD-WAN event log and exhibit B shows the member status and the SD-WAN rule configuration.

Based on the exhibits, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

FortiGate updated the outgoing interface list on the rule so it prefers port2.

Port2 has the highest member priority.

Port2 has a lower latency than port1.

SD-WAN rule ID 1 is set to lowest cost (SLA) mode.

2. Exhibit.

The exhibit shows the output of the command diagnose sys sdwan health-check status collected on a FortiGate device.

Which two statements are correct about the health check status on this FortiGate device? (Choose two.)

The health-check VPN_PING orders the members according to the lowest jitter.

The interface T_INET_1 missed one SLA target.

There is no SLA criteria configured for the health-check Level3_DN

The interface T_INET_0 missed three SLA targets.

3. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the details of a session and the index numbers of some relevant interfaces on a FortiGate appliance that supports hardware ofloading.

Based on the information shown in the exhibits, which two statements about the session are true? (Choose two.)

The reply direction of the asymmetric traffic flows from port2 to port3.

The auxiliary session can be ofloaded to hardware.

The original direction of the symmetric traffic flows from port3 to port2.

The main session cannot be ofloaded to hardware.

4. Which components make up the secure SD-WAN solution?

Application, antivirus, and URL, and SSL inspection

Datacenter, branch offices, and public cloud

FortiGate, FortiManager, FortiAnalyzer, and FortiDeploy

Telephone, ISDN, and telecom network.

5. Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A

Exhibit B

Exhibit A shows the SD-WAN performance SLA and exhibit B shows the SD-WAN member status, the routing table, and the performance SLA status.

If port2 is detected dead by FortiGate, what is the expected behavior?

Port2 becomes alive after three successful probes are detected.

FortiGate removes all static routes for port2.

The administrator manually restores the static routes for port2, if port2 becomes alive.

Host 8.8.8.8 is reachable through port1 and port2.

6. Which are two benefits of using CLI templates in FortiManager? (Choose two.)

You can reference meta fields.

You can configure interfaces as SD-WAN members without having to remove references first.

You can configure FortiManager to sync local configuration changes made on the managed device, to the CLI template.

You can configure advanced CLI settings.

7. Which diagnostic command can you use to show the member utilization statistics measured by performance SLAs for the last 10 minutes?

diagnose sys sdwan sla-log

diagnose ays sdwan health-check

diagnose sys sdwan intf-sla-log

diagnose sys sdwan log

8. Refer to the exhibits.

An administrator is testing application steering in SD-WAN. Before generating test traffic, the administrator collected the information shown in exhibit A.

After generating GoToMeeting test traffic, the administrator examined the respective traffic log on FortiAnalyzer, which is shown in exhibit

B. The administrator noticed that the traffic matched the implicit SD-WAN rule, but they expected the traffic to match rule ID 1.

Which two reasons explain why the traffic matched the implicit SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.)

FortiGate did not refresh the routing information on the session after the application was detected.

Port1 and port2 do not have a valid route to the destination.

Full SSL inspection is not enabled on the matching firewall policy.

The session 3-tuple did not match any of the existing entries in the ISDB application cache.

9. Refer to the exhibits.

Exhibit A shows a policy package definition Exhibit B shows the install log that the administrator received when he tried to install the policy package on FortiGate devices.

Based on the output shown in the exhibits, what can the administrator do to solve the Issue?

Create dynamic mapping for the LAN interface for all devices in the installation target list.

Use a metadata variable instead of a dynamic interface to define the firewall policy.

Dynamic mapping should be done automatically. Review the LAN interface configuration for branch2_fgt.

Policies can refer to only one LAN source interface. Keep only the D-LAN, which is the dynamic LAN interface.

10. What is a benefit of using application steering in SD-WAN?

The traffic always skips the regular policy routes.

You steer traffic based on the detected application.

You do not need to enable SSL inspection.

You do not need to configure firewall policies that accept the SD-WAN traffic.

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11. Within IPsec tunnel templates available on FortiManager. which template will you use to configure static tunnels for a hub and spoke topology?

Static_IPsec_Recommended

Hub_IPsec_Recommended

Branch_IPsec_Recommended

IPsec_Fortinet_Recommended

12. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the IPsec VPN configuration and the status of the IPsec VPN tunnel are true? (Choose two.)

FortiGate does not install IPsec static routes for remote protected networks in the routing table.

The phase 1 configuration supports the network-overlay setting.

FortiGate facilitated the negotiation of the T_INET_1_0_0 ADVPN shortcut over T_INET_1_0.

Dead peer detection is disabled.

13. Refer to the exhibit.

Which are two expected behaviors of the traffic that matches the traffic shaper? (Choose two.)

The number of simultaneous connections among all source IP addresses cannot exceed five connections.

The traffic shaper limits the combined bandwidth of all connections to a maximum of 5 MB/sec.

The number of simultaneous connections allowed for each source IP address cannot exceed five connections.

The traffic shaper limits the bandwidth of each source IP address to a maximum of 625 KB/sec.

14. Exhibit.

Which conclusion about the packet debug flow output is correct?

The total number of daily sessions for 10.1.10.1 exceeded the maximum number of concurrent sessions configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

The packet size exceeded the outgoing interface MT

The number of concurrent sessions for 10.1.10.1 exceeded the maximum number of concurrent sessions configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

The number of concurrent sessions for 10.1.10.1 exceeded the maximum number of concurrent sessions configured in the firewall policy, and the packet was dropped.

15. Refer to the Exhibits:

Exhibit A, which shows the SD-WAN performance SLA and exhibit B shows the health of the participating SD-WAN members.

Based on the exhibits, which statement is correct?

The dead member interface stays unavailable until an administrator manually brings the interface back.

Port2 needs to wait 500 milliseconds to change the status from alive to dead.

Static routes using port2 are active in the routing table.

FortiGate has not received three consecutive requests from the SLA server configured for port2.

16. What are two reasons for using FortiManager to organize and manage the network for a group of FortiGate devices? (Choose two.)

It simplifies the deployment and administration of SD-WAN on managed FortiGate devices.

It improves SD-WAN performance on the managed FortiGate devices.

It sends probe signals as health checks to the beacon servers on behalf of FortiGate.

It acts as a policy compliance entity to review all managed FortiGate devices.

It reduces WAN usage on FortiGate devices by acting as a local FortiGuard server.

17. What are two reasons why FortiGate would be unable to complete the zero-touch provisioning process? (Choose two.)

The FortiGate cloud key has not been added to the FortiGate cloud portal.

FortiDeploy has connected with FortiGate and provided the initial configuration to contact FortiManager

The zero-touch provisioning process has completed internally, behind FortiGate.

FortiGate has obtained a configuration from the platform template in FortiGate cloud.

A factory reset performed on FortiGate.

18. Which best describes the SD-WAN traffic shaping mode that bases itself on a percentage of available bandwidth?

Interface-based shaping mode

Reverse-policy shaping mode

Shared-policy shaping mode

Per-IP shaping mode

19. Refer to the exhibit.

Which two SD-WAN template member settings support the use of FortiManager meta fields? (Choose two.)

Cost

Interface member

Priority

Gateway IP

20. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which statement about FortiGate re-evaluating traffic is true?

The type of traffic defined and allowed on firewall policy ID 1 is UD

FortiGate has terminated the session after a change on policy ID 1.

Changes have been made on firewall policy ID 1 on FortiGate.

Firewall policy ID 1 has source NAT disabled.

Page 3 of 3

21. What are two benefits of using the Internet service database (ISDB) in an SD-WAN rule? (Choose two.)

The ISDB is dynamically updated and reduces administrative overhead.

The ISDB requires application control to maintain signatures and perform load balancing.

The ISDB applies rules to traffic from specific sources, based on application type.

The ISDB contains the IP addresses and port ranges of well-known internet services.

22. What is the route-tag setting in an SD-WAN rule used for?

To indicate the routes for health check probes.

To indicate the destination of a rule based on learned BGP prefixes.

To indicate the routes that can be used for routing SD-WAN traffic.

To indicate the members that can be used to route SD-WAN traffic.

23. Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows output of the command diagnose 3vg sdwan service collected on a FortiGate device.

The administrator wants to know through which interface FortiGate will steer the traffic from local users on subnet 10.0.1.0/255.255.255.192 and with a destination of the business application Salesforce located on HO servers 10.0.0.1.

Based on the exhibits, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

When FortiGate cannot recognize the application of the flow it steers the traffic destined to server 10.0.0.1 according to service rule 3.

FortiGate steers traffic to HO servers according to service rule 1 and it uses port1 or port2 because both interfaces are selected.

There is no service defined for the Salesforce application, so FortiGate will use the service rule 3 and steer the traffic through interface T_HQ1.

FortiGate steers traffic for business application according to service rule 2 and steers traffic through port2.

24. Which statement about using BGP for ADVPN is true?

You must use BGP to route traffic for both overlay and underlay links.

You must configure AS path prepending.

You must configure BGP communities.

IBGP is preferred over EBGP, because IBGP preserves next hop information.

25. Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the exhibit, which action does FortiGate take?

FortiGate bounces port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

FortiGate fails over to the secondary device after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

FortiGate brings up port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as alive.

FortiGate brings down port5 after it detects all SD-WAN members as dead.

26. Which two statements describe how IPsec phase 1 main mode is different from aggressive mode when performing IKE negotiation? (Choose two)

A peer ID is included in the first packet from the initiator, along with suggested security policies.

XAuth is enabled as an additional level of authentication, which requires a username and password.

A total of six packets are exchanged between an initiator and a responder instead of three packets.

The use of Diffie Hellman keys is limited by the responder and needs initiator acceptance.

27. What are two advantages of using an IPsec recommended template to configure an IPsec tunnel in a hub-and-spoke topology? (Choose two.)

VPN monitor tool provides additional statistics for tunnels defined with an IPsec recommended template.

FortiManager automatically installs IPsec tunnels to every spoke when they are added to the FortiManager ADO

IPsec recommended template guides the administrator to use Fortinet recommended settings.

IPsec recommended template ensures consistent settings between phase1 and phase2

28. In which SD-WAN template field can you use a metadata variable?

You can use metadata variables only to define interface members and the gateway I

All SD-WAN template fields support metadata variables.

Any field Identified with a dollar sign ($) in a magnifying glass.

Any field identified with an "M" in a circle.

29. Two hub-and-spoke groups are connected through a site-to-site IPsec VPN between Hub 1 and Hub 2. The administrator configured ADVPN on both hub-and-spoke groups.

Which two outcomes are expected if a user in Toronto sends traffic to London? (Choose two.)

London generates an IKE information message that contains the Toronto public IP address.

Traffic from Toronto to London triggers the dynamic negotiation of a direct site-to-site VP

Toronto needs to establish a site-to-site tunnel with Hub 2 to bypass Hub 1.

The first packets from Toronto to London are routed through Hub 1 then to Hub 2.

30. Refer to the exhibit.

Which conclusion about the packet debug flow output is correct?

The original traffic exceeded the maximum packets per second of the outgoing interface, and the packet was dropped.

The reply traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

The original traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth of the outgoing interface, and the packet was dropped.

The original traffic exceeded the maximum bandwidth configured in the traffic shaper, and the packet was dropped.

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