H12-931_V2.0-ENU Dumps Questions – Effective Way to Get Certified

1. A company has built a network with 20 subnets and Class C IP addresses. What subnet mask should be used to correctly configure the network?

2. DAP board and DAPXF board are the substrates of optical amplifier modules. Both can be used to amplify optical signals and can replace each other in WDM systems.

3. Which of the following descriptions about ASON service association is wrong?

4. In WDM network planning, which of the following scenarios require additional OSNR cost consideration?

5. When multiple alarms are reported, the priority principle of alarm processing is to process and troubleshoot the alarms in the order of equipment alarms (BUS_ERR, HARD_ERR, COMM FAIL, etc.), optical layer LOS, electrical layer OTUk_LOF, ODUk_SSF, and protection type protection switching.

6. It is not recommended to configure EPLAN services as a ring. If EPLAN services are configured as a ring network, the STP protocol must be enabled on the network to prevent broadcast storms.

7. The service of station A is broadcast to stations B and C. When the branch board TOA (R8 version) of station A is connected to FE/GE, and GE uses TTT-GMP or GFP-encapsulation, in order to make the switch port of station A in the Up state: what methods that can be used on the OTN equipment? (Multiple choice)

8. In order to achieve the specified synchronization quality requirements, corresponding requirements must be made for the synchronous transmission network, and certain networking rules must be followed during network planning. Which of the following is wrong?

9. SL64 board can be used for OSN2500.

10. 1588 V2 clock model mainly consists of OC, BC, E2E TC and P2P TC. Which of the following is not a feature of OC? (Multiple choice)

11. Mapping is the process of adapting branch signals into () at the boundary of the SDH network.

12. #1 and #2 are OTM network elements, point-to-point chain service, 1 channel is opened, OAU of station A emits +4dbm, SC2 board receives -35dbm at station #2, OBU board receives -30dbm, and OTU board receives no light. Which is the most likely cause of the fault?

13. OptiX OSN 3500 equipment forms a SNCP ring network, the cross-connect board uses GXCSA, and the main ring is configured with SL64 boards. AB is two adjacent nodes. Station B receives a large number of regeneration section and multiplex section errors reported by the SL64 board of station A. At the same time, station A receives the multiplex section far-end errors reported by the SL64 board of station E. After studying the network diagram, it is found that the distance between A and B is 100km, the rate is 10G, and the configuration structure is " Optical board + BA + PA + DCU + optical board".

Which of the following reasons lead to bit errors? (Multiple choice)

14. After the ASON network undergoes multiple topology changes, the LSP of each service is often not optimal, so an optimization function is provided for this purpose.

Which of the following options does not belong to the optimization function features?

15. In the Linux system, configure an IP address 129.9.1.100 for the network card Eth0. Which of the following command is used?

16. Drift refers to the long-term phase change of a digital signal relative to a standard signal that is less than 10 Hz, and jitter refers to the short-term phase change of a digital signal relative to a standard signal that is greater than 10 Hz.

17. If OSN6800 equipment wants to achieve 1588V2 time synchronization, it must be configured with an electrical layer cross-connect board

18. Which of the following description of PM_BIP8 related alarms is correct?

19. Which of the following does not belong to simple flow classification?

20. If there is insufficient remaining space on the OTU board, at which upgrade step is failure possible?

21. If you want to establish a GE-level path on the network management, which of the following steps are necessary? (Multiple choice)

22. The OTN network starts the electrical layer ASON network. After the intelligent feature is enabled on a certain network element, it cannot join the intelligent domain. Which of the following are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)

23. The following are the parts of the CORBA northbound interface and the corresponding functions of each part. Which one is correct? (Multiple choice)

24. Customers in different industries have different business requirements. For government customers, which of the following indicators is the most important?

25. What modules does Huawei RTN 900 series equipment mainly consist of? (Multiple choice)

26. Which of the following descriptions of the 1+1 protection features on the client side is wrong?

27. When shutting down the U2000 dual-machine system (Solaris), the following commands are used:

What is the correct order in which these commands appear?

28. Which of the following operations may cause bit errors due to nonlinear effects?

29. If there is a problem with the call quality, you can adjust the voice quality by setting the port gain at both ends on the network management. When the port volume is low, increase the call gain; when the port volume is high, reduce the call gain.

30. In a wavelength division system, after a certain distance of transmission, the optical signal-to-noise ratio of the receiving end signal will be reduced to a certain extent. Which of the following is the main reason?

31. ODUk_PM_AIS alarm is one of the conditions for ODUK_SNCP switching

32. Which of the following is not one of the possible reasons for the CPW_OMS_TEL_DOWN alarm?

33. When protection switching occurs in a 25GMSP ring consisting of four MSTP sites.

Which of the following statements about police reporting are correct?

34. What are the main application scenarios of 1588 ACR? (Multiple choice)

35. () is a parameter used to describe the reliability of the transmission system.

36. Which of the following is not an antenna parameter?

37. Which of the following descriptions about ODUk ring network protection is wrong?

38. What is the reason why OTN equipment network elements are frequently disconnected?

39. Which of the following overhead items in the OTN frame structure represents the path tracking identifier?

40. For inter-board wavelength protection and client-side 1+1 wavelength protection, it is prohibited to manually set the "laser status" of the backup OTU client-side optical interface to "on", otherwise it will cause service interruption.

41. Which of the following signals can be used as input or output signals of the external clock interface? (Multiple choice)

42. Which of the following descriptions about single-station commissioning is wrong?

43. Which of the following descriptions of SNMP is wrong?

44. The length range of the DATA field in the Ethernet frame structure is ().

45. MSTP equipment TDM plane can support 1588V2.

46. Full-duplex means that data can be sent and received simultaneously without interfering with each other.

47. Two SMP rings intersect. For cross-ring services, the configuration of the intersection nodes is particularly important. In order to achieve the best protection effect, each intersection node needs to be configured with one unidirectional cross connection and two pairs of SNCP protection groups.

48. Regarding file operation and maintenance, which of the following is wrong?

49. For ODUk SNCP protection, if the pass-through site is an electrical relay site, it is recommended to configure the SNCP type as SNC/I when configuring protection.

50. When the optical cable is laid by traction, the main traction force should be applied to the () of the optical cable.

51. The length of Ethernet frames has a lower limit. What is the main consideration?

52. What are the limiting factors of CES ACR synchronization? (Multiple choice)

53. In ITU-T, which of the following options that belong to the OTN electrical layer? (Multiple choice)

54. Access point failure and service network failure can trigger the LPT function. WDM equipment can switch services to backup links for transmission in different corresponding ways to ensure normal services.

Which of the following corresponding methods does the wavelength division device not support?

55. The scope of 1+1 protection in the OTU board is the optical fiber on the OCH path, that is, the optical fiber from the source OTU board to the sink OTU board.

56. What is the method used to multiplex low-order ODUx signals into high-order ODUk signals?

57. Which of the following options are correct for describing the three application forms of OTN multi-level connection monitoring mode (TCM)? (Multiple choice)

58. Regarding U2000 dual-machine deployment, which of the following statements is wrong?

59. When 61.2M PDH signal is mapped into VC12, the mapping mode used is (). (Byte synchronous mapping/asynchronous mapping/bit synchronous mapping).

60. Each station of the high-speed rail CTC service has a () circuit.

61. Which of the following descriptions of daily maintenance is correct?

62. What are the reasons why the ODUk_PM_OCl alarm statement is correct? (Multiple choice)

63. Which of the following is the meaning of "L" in the optical module parameter "L-642"?

64. When upgrading the GXCS board of the OptiX OSN3500 device to SXCS, services will be interrupted during the upgrade process if there is a master/slave configuration.

65. MPLS-IPOA functions are divided into active OAM and on-demand OAM. Which of the following options belong to active OAM? (Multiple choice)

66. When configuring the basic properties of the EM20 board Ethernet interface, the default value of the "maximum frame length" is ().

67. What types of boards need to be upgraded when upgrading NG-SDH equipment?

68. For Huawei equipment, NODE ID is the unique identifier of the intelligent network element in the control plane. After the network is configured with intelligent services, the NODE ID will no longer be modified.

69. Regarding the SSM protocol, which of the following statements are correct? (Multiple choice)

70. A service passes through two wavelength division rings. The two wavelength division rings are tangentially networked. The tangential network elements share the electronic rack. It is required to implement segmented ODURSKCP protection, that is, the protection is interrupted once for each fault in each ring. Which of the following types should be configured?

71. NG-SDH products initially supported the board-level hot patch function. V100RO08 and later versions began to support both board-level hot patch and patch package functions (different main control types support different hot patch upgrade methods). What versions are supported from V100R010 and later versions?

72. Divide the ECC subnet.

73. When configuring 1+1 optical line protection, you can select RI1/TI2/TO2 as the working channel according to actual conditions.

74. Which of the following options are correct regarding the automatic shutdown function of the laser on the LSX single-board of the wavelength division product? (Multiple choice)

75. A certain wavelength division network, the networking is shown in the figure.





Now, due to the need for new services, two waves need to be added and dropped at site B, that is, the OLA site needs to be transformed into a back-to-back OTM site. Which of the following descriptions is wrong?

76. If the instrument sends data frame rate X and receives data frame rate Y, then the packet loss rate = (XY)/X ∗ 100%. Usually, the packet loss rate + throughput = 1

77. The maximum dispersion tolerance of an OTU board is 800ps/nm. On a G.652 fiber, the dispersion-limited distance can be roughly considered to be?

78. Two MSP rings intersect, and one of the network elements at the intersection has SNCP and MSP protection coexisting. How to solve the secondary switching phenomenon caused by protection coexistence?

79. Which of the following descriptions about branch SNCP protection is wrong?

80. Which of the following are communications, quality alerts? (Multiple choice)

81. Which of the following statements about extended ECC is wrong?

82. SDH&PDH tester is mainly used to test the jitter, bit error characteristics and other indicators of OTU. It can also be used as a test signal source to provide test signals for OTU.

83. The NHLFE next-hop label forwarding table entry contains the next-hop address and which of the following?

84. Which of the following statements about the configuration, testing and maintenance of IPA functions is correct? (Multiple choice)

85. When the periodic fiber quality detection is started, if a fiber break is found, the FIBER BREAK POS alarm will be actively reported to the network management to indicate the location of the fiber break.

86. When the capacity of the cross-connect board is upgraded, if a site with dual cross-connect configuration is replaced, there will be two cross-connect boards with different capacities coexisting. At this time, if the cross-connect board is switched, there will be a long service interruption.

87. After which of the following steps can the rollback operation no longer be performed?

88. Which of the following options does not belong to the PW APS switching conditions?

89. When a faulty board is found at the beginning of the project, after calling TAC to locate the fault, you can go through the DOA process and directly apply for spare parts.

90. Which of the following layers of overhead belong to the electrical layer overhead of OIN? (Multiple choice)

91. Aligning antennas means aligning the main lobes of the antennas at both ends to maximize the signal strength received from the opposite antenna.

92. What should be paid attention to when planning the 1588 V2 network? (Multiple choice)

93. A 100G coherent system Colorless & Directionless site configuration, line dimension uses WSM9+RDU9, what local wave configurations can be used? (Multiple choice)

94. What are the commonly used test instruments for WDM systems? (Multiple choice)

95. The types of software to be loaded during the OSN product upgrade process include basic BIOS. So, what is the main function of basic BIOS? (Multiple choice)

96. TE links in OTN electrical layer ASON are unidirectional. For example, there are two TE links between NS2 and NS2. The final number of links is the number of ports on the N boards that have been enabled (including the relay N boards).

97. The low-order path overhead byte V5 in VC12 is similar in function to which of the following overhead bytes in the high-order path overhead of VC4? (Multiple choice)

98. In an ASON network, when a fiber contains part of the multiplexing section, the working time slots of the multiplexing section constitute (); the protection time slots of the multiplexing section constitute (); and the time slots unrelated to the multiplexing section constitute (). If resources are reserved for the time slots (for static services), these time slots are divided into ().

Please select the appropriate answer from the options below in order.

99. When super 100G/100G and 10G are mixed and transmitted adjacently, the optical power of super 100G6/100G signals is recommended to be higher than the optical power of 10G signals, but cannot be higher than the single-wave nominal value of the optical amplifier board.

100. What technologies are used in the network of PTN equipment? (Multiple choice)

101. The gain of the OAU board is 23db. 1% of the total output power of the OAU board is used for MON detection. The output optical power of the MON port is -8dbm. What is the input optical power of the IN port of the OAU board?

102. After the microwave equipment enables the AM function, the signal level of the high modulation mode is lower than that of the low modulation mode.

103. The IP address you use is 165.247.52.119, and the subnet mask is 255.255.240.0. Which subnet is your host on?

104. The OSN 1800V OTN circuit board (such as ND2) can reflect whether the optical power of the receiving end is too high or too low through the status of the indicator light on the panel.

105. Automatic gain control (AGC) can solve the problem in multi-wavelength systems where the increase or decrease in wave number causes energy transfer, thereby affecting the optical power of the normal operating wavelength.

106. Which of the following following statements about TE links are wrong? (Multiple choice)

107. C. C is used to detect the unidirectional connectivity between any pair of MEPs in a MEG. If the destination MEP does not receive a CCM message within three times the message sending period, it is considered that there is a connectivity problem from the source MEP to the destination MEP.

108. 1. When LOATOA/THA/TOMTOG and other single board services are activated, the client-side interface of this end reports a SYNC alarm. What is the reason?

109. CORBA (Common Object Request Broker Architecture) is a mature industrial standard for inter-object communication. It provides platform-dependent programming interfaces and models for portable, object-oriented distributed computing applications. Its independence from languages, platforms, and network protocols makes it very suitable for the development and system integration of existing distributed system applications.

110. Before configuring SOM, the physical fiber connection from OMCA to the optical amplifier board must be completed. The logical fiber connection from OMCA to the optical amplifier board does not affect the OMS path generation, and therefore does not affect the configuration of SOM.

111. PID (Photonics Integrated Device) is a photonics integrated device. The PID board can realize multi-wavelength integration, no optical amplifier is required for 40Km, and no dispersion compensation is required for 80Km.

112. High-risk operations refer to all operations that may affect the stable operation of equipment, the normal operation of customer services, and the normal monitoring of network management. Which of the following are usually included? (Multiple choice)

113. The collection and preservation of field data includes regular collection during normal equipment operation and collection when equipment fails. Generally, before troubleshooting, maintenance personnel must first collect and save field data.

114. The indicators of AB site networking and related optical layer boards are as follows. In order to meet the optical layer performance, the transceiver ends of the line dimension and local dimension of each site need to select appropriate optical amplifiers.





Which of the following optical amplifier planning configurations is the worst?

115. In a Layer 2 switching device, if the Ethernet port is an Access port, the port can only receive Ethernet frames without a Vlan or with the same Vlan ID as the port's default.

116. The only functional difference between OPSA and OPSB is that OPSA has () after the splitter, while OPSB does not.

117. Now there is an EPL service, the Ethernet physical port is FE, and VCtrunk is bound to 50 VC12s. At this time, if the throughput of this service is tested, the result should be 100%.

118. Which of the following is wrong in the workflow of connecting U2000 CORBA to OSS?

119. The EDFA in the OAU board has a gain locking function. When one or several channels are added or reduced or the optical signal of some channels fluctuates, the signal gain of other channels will not be affected.

120. The signal frequencies allowed in ITU-TG692 Recommendation are based on the reference frequency () and the channel spacing can be 100 GHz, 50 GHz or 25 GHz.

121. Which of the following functions can PTN equipment achieve through the GE optical interface of the Ethernet processing board? (Multiple choice)

122. What rigid pipes can MS-OTN equipment provide? (Multiple choice)

123. In a remote area, the land is frozen all year round, and there are many bridges and tunnels on the only road for local people to travel. In order to monitor the health status changes of these engineering structures, which of the following fiber optic sensing systems is needed?

124. What backplane buses does TDM equipment contain? (Multiple choice)

125. The primary site fails and the backup site fails to start. Which of the following are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)

126. Which of the following statements about the position of the dispersion module in the signal flow is wrong?

127. Which of the following descriptions about the delay measurement principle in the delay map is wrong?

128. What packet protection features does OSN 1800V support? (Multiple choice)

129. Regarding the network-level protection switching test of the OTN system, which of the following statements is correct?

130. Which of the following protections does N3EGS2 support?

131. 1NE1 is interconnected with NE2. NE1 uses OptiX SDH equipment and uses a VC4:1:2 timeslot. If the service can be opened normally, what is the VC12 timeslot number that the other end needs to use when using equipment from other manufacturers?

132. The input of external clock timing signal can be in the form of 2048 KHz and 2048 Kbit/s. If it is in 2048Kbit/s mode, the device can automatically extract clock quality information: if it is in 2048KHZ mode, the clock quality information cannot be extracted and needs to be manually defined.

133. Back-to-back OTM sites, three new relay wavelengths are added. The schematic diagram is as follows. Which of the following statements is wrong?

134. For the OptiX trans E9624 device, when the working OUT and protection OUT are placed in different subracks, the DCP board can be used to configure the client-side 1+1 protection

135. In microwave products, which of the following protection methods can enable reverse switching? (Multiple choice)

136. Which of the following are the main technical indicators for measuring filters? (Multiple choice)

137. Regarding the isolation index of M40 and D40 channels of OSN6800/8800 equipment, which of the following statements is correct? (Multiple choice)

138. Failed to create OCh using the path method. Which of the following are the possible reasons? (Multiple choice)

139. It is known that the technical indicators of the GE optical switch port of a certain PTN-equipment are as follows: average transmit optical power (dBm.): -5-0, receive sensitivity (dBm): -23, minimum overload point (dBm): 3, minimum extinction ratio (dB): 80. For this optical interface, which of the following optical powers (dBm) is the most suitable receive optical power?

140. There are two types of E1 signals: Unframed E1 and Framed E1. Unframed E1 means that all time slots are used as a whole to transmit user data.

141. Which particles can be cross-dispatched by the cross-connect board of OSN 8800 equipment? (Multiple choice)

142. AAC address consists of 46 bits and is globally unique.

Which of the following is the meaning of a MAC address with the eighth bit set to 1?

143. Which of the following statements about the alarm reversal function is wrong?

144. One VC-4 can transmit () VC-12, that is, (63) 2.048 Mbit/s signals.

145. NG WDMASON network can provide different service levels according to different customer demand levels. The electrical layer ASON of the wavelength division service level supports three different SLA levels: diamond, silver and bronze.

146. One day, the customer expanded the service carrying capacity. It planned to add two 10GE LAN services using the 100G channel between station A and station B. The link is shown in the figure. The T boards at stations A and B reported ODU2_LOFLOM, and the carrying service was unavailable. The current alarms of the equipment were queried, and no equipment hardware failure alarms were reported.





The remaining four 10GE link services carried by the current 100G channel are normal. Which of the following descriptions of the cause and solution of this fault are correct? (Multiple choice)

147. Before upgrading the OTN 6800/8800 equipment, the network element health check file needs to be returned to TAC for analysis.

148. The BTS and transmission connection port in the high-speed railway base station is ().

149. A network is configured with SOM. When performing path performance analysis, the OSNR value of the downstream optical amplifier in the OCh path is higher than that of the upstream optical amplifier. Which of the following analysis is wrong?

150. When the customer's 1+1 protection uses different routes, the working wavelength and the protection wavelength cannot use the same wavelength.

151. Which of the following statements about latency testing is wrong?

152. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the online optimization service adjustment of the AOSN network?

153. The wavelength division system mainly uses DCM compensation to compensate for chromatic dispersion. Which of the following statements about DCM dispersion compensation is wrong?

154. In a wavelength division system, what are the reasons that can cause large fiber attenuation and high bit error rate? (Multiple choice)

155. While creating an electrical layer trail, which options are correct for analyzing the causes of possible route calculation failures (at the Client, ODUK, and ODUr1ex levels)? (Multiple choice)

156. Which of the following scenarios require dispersion compensation? (Multiple choice)

157. In a point-to-point WDM networking scenario, the signal-to-noise ratio of a single channel is low, while other channels are normal. What is the reason for this being impossible?

158. Which of the following descriptions of OSS is wrong?

159. The following is the network parameter planning of an engineer's network management server. Which of the following is correct? (Multiple choice)

160. Before performing optical power adjustment on the ROADM board, you must first configure virtual optical layer services, otherwise the ROADM board will block all wavelengths by default.

161. While expanding the existing network wave distribution system, which of the following performances do not need to be evaluated?

162. Which of the following are not precautions for initial inspection?

163. If the OSS is connected through the CORBA interface, a session connection is established between the U2000 and the OSS. Which of the following descriptions about the session connection is wrong?

164. Which of the following descriptions of ODUflex are correct? (Multiple choice)

165. Assume that there are subnets A1, A2 and A3 under subnet A. When configuring monitoring settings, if subnets A1, A2 and A3 are not all selected for monitoring, subnet A will not be monitored. If subnet A4 is added under subnet A, the newly added subnet A4 will be monitored only when subnet A is monitored, and the monitoring policy can be different from the monitoring policy of subnet A.

166. Both the Ping function and the Traceroute function detect the bidirectional connectivity of the tunnel and PW by exchanging MPLS echo request and MPLS echo reply messages.

167. What are the TDM circuit emulation encapsulation protocols? (Multiple choice)

168. QOS refers to a network capability, that is, providing the required services for specific businesses on a network that spans multiple underlying network technologies (MP, FR, ATM, Ethernet, SDH, MPLS, etc.), and achieving the expected service level in terms of packet loss rate, delay, jitter and bandwidth. What are its goals? (Multiple choice)

169. MPLS technology introduces the concept of connection-oriented label switching on the connectionless IP network and integrates IP technology with ATM label switching technology.

170. High-level operations refer to all operations that may affect the stable operation of equipment, the normal operation of customer services, and the normal monitoring of network management. Which of the following are usually included? (Multiple choice)

171. For a coherent system, the reference point of the fiber optical power in the non-standard fiber-input scenario is moved from the output port of the transmitting optical amplifier board to the output port of the FIU.

172. Which of the following unified line boards cannot support the cross-connection of VC, packet, and ODUk at the same time?

173. K1 and K2 bytes can transmit APS switching signaling and can also indicate the failure of the signal of the multiplex section

174. In the Colored & Directed scenario of 4D ROADM, how many sets of M40V+D40 are needed to dispatch local services to four directions?

175. In the Linux system, the directory tree structure and the file system are two different concepts. The file system is the logical way to manage files in the operating system, while the directory tree structure is the physical storage method of files on the disk or partition.

176. Which of the following statements is wrong when creating an upgrade task?

177. Combiners are divided into balanced combiners and unbalanced combiners. 1+1FD generally chooses unbalanced combiners?

178. Which of the following alarms will be reported when performing a fiber cutting test on a normal MSP ring? (Multiple choice)

179. For SDH equipment, in the STM-N frame structure, the rate corresponding to each bit is () b/s

180. Which of the following descriptions about the cross-connect board of the OSN 8800 T64 subrack are correct? (Multiple choice)

181. Which of the following belongs to the sink function of the ODUk layer?

182. Which of the following descriptions about the networking requirements for configuring SOM is wrong?

183. For the cross-ring service of SNCP and MSP tangent rings, which of the following statements are correct for the configuration at the tangent point? (Multiple choice)

184. Which of the following features does the N3EFS4 board support? (Multiple choice)

185. The Ethernet board has an external port (Port) and an internal port (VCTRUNK). The external port can set the Tag attribute, but the internal port cannot set the Tag attribute.