D-ISM-FN-01 Exam Dumps - Reliable Way to Pass and Get Certified

D-ISM-FN-01 Exam Dumps – Reliable Way to Pass and Get Certified

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November 1, 2025

If you are looking for a reliable and comprehensive way to prepare for your D-ISM-FN-01 certification exam, look no further than D-ISM-FN-01 exam questions. These D-ISM-FN-01 exam dumps questions are designed to help you assess your knowledge, identify your strengths and weaknesses, and improve your chances of passing the exam on the first try. These D-ISM-FN-01 dumps questions cover all the topics and concepts that are essential for the D-ISM-FN-01 exam, so you can be sure that you are fully prepared. Test DELL EMC D-ISM-FN-01 free dumps below.

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1. Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?

Machine learning

Social networking

Cloud computing

Internet of Things

2. Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN environment?

FLOGI

PLOGI

PRLI

WWPN

3. What is an advantage of implementing file-level virtualization in a data center environment?

Provides non-disruptive file mobility across NAS devices.

Allows users the ability to only use a physical path to access files.

Provides the capability to access files from any device.

Provides dynamic distribution of files across NAS clients.

4. Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?

Gateway

Scale-out

Unified

Integrated

5. Which attack is carried out by sending a spoofing e-mail and redirecting a user to a false website?

Phishing

Man-in-the-middle

Denial-of-service

Repudiation

6. Which data center management process involves collating and presenting the utilization of resources?

Reporting

Provisioning

Planning

Maintenance

7. In the context of backup operations, what does the term 'granularity' refer to?

The size of the backup

The frequency of the backup

The level of detail at which data can be restored

The speed of the backup process

8. Which of the following technologies are critical for ensuring high availability in a modern data center? (Choose three)

Load Balancing

RAID

Single Sign-On

Virtualization

9. In an FC SAN environment, an administrator wants to ensure that a particular switch port cannot function as an E_Port and cannot be used to create an interswitch link.

Which security mechanism should the administrator use?

Port type locking

Port binding

Persistent port disable

Fabric binding

10. In the context of storage security, what is the primary goal of data encryption?

To speed up data access

To protect data confidentiality

To ensure data deduplication

To manage user access

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11. Which Dell EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file storage services?

XtremIO

PowerMax

FAST VP

VPLEX

12. What is the objective of security control?

Minimize the attack surfaces and minimize the work factors

Maximize the attack surfaces and minimize the attack vector

Minimize the attack surfaces and maximize the work factors

Maximize the attack surfaces and maximize the attack vector

13. What accurately describes an object-based storage device (OSD)?

One object can be placed inside another object

Objects are created based on the name and location of the file

Objects exist at the same level in the address space

Numerous objects can be stored in a single namespace

14. In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 9 data segments and 3 coding segments using the erasure coding technique.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by this configuration?

15. What is an accurate statement about an integrated NAS controller?

Contains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving

Stripes data across multiple NAS systems for data protection

Abstracts and pools NAS controllers across multiple NAS systems

Contains an FC Forwarder that is optimized for file sharing functions

16. In the FC protocol stack, what is the function of the FC-4 layer?

Provides standards for the physical interface, media, and transmission of bits

Provides FC addressing, structure, and organization of data

Provides transmission words, primitive signals, and link initialization

Defines application interfaces and maps storage protocols

17. Which layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack defines the fabric services?

FC-0

FC-1

FC-2

FC-4

18. An organization wants to use an application for their business communication. However, they do not have the skills or the time to deploy and manage an application in-house.

Which recommended cloud service model will meet their requirement?

Infrastructure as a Service

Database as a Service

Software as a Service

Platform as a Service

19. What is the role of a media server in a backup architecture?

Stores the backup data

Manages the backup operations and moves data between clients and storage

Provides user interface for backup configuration

Holds the deduplicated data

20. Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?

Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel

Data is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head

Data is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster

NAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data

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21. What provides users with self-service access to pre-defined storage services?

Storage controller

Control plane

Service catalog

Service discovery

22. What is an accurate statement about a denial-of-service attack?

Prevents legitimate users from accessing resources or services

Intentional misuse of privileges to compromise data security

Gaining unauthorized access to a user’s accounts and data

Captures a user’s credentials and then sends to the attacker

23. Which task is performed during authentication using Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) control?

Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource owner

Authenticates client-server applications over the network by using shared-key cryptography

Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider

Uses a hash function to convert the secret code into a hash value that is shared between initiator and target

24. Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?

Archive storage

Archive database server

Archive agent

Archive stub file

25. What is an accurate statement about NAS?

Enables NAS clients to seamlessly access files only over FC networks

Uses only a proprietary operating system and integrated hardware components

Uses flat address space to enable a large number of files to be stored

Enables both UNIX and Microsoft Windows users to seamlessly share the same data

26. In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical business processes and assign recovery priorities?

Analyzing

Establishing objectives

Designing and developing

Implementing

27. Which product delivers virtualized or hosted desktops and applications through a single platform?

VMware Horizon

Dell EMC VxRail Appliance

VMware NSX

Dell PowerEdge servers

28. What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?

Combines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link

Aggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs

Consolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link

Replaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link

29. What is an accurate statement about a software RAID implementation?

Uses CPU cycles of a compute system to perform RAID calculations

Supports the upgrade of RAID software on incompatible O/S

Uses a specialized hardware controller to perform RAID calculations

Supports all RAID levels

30. Which parameters define information availability in an IT environment?

Capacity, Availability, and Performance

Reliability, Integrity, and Performance

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

Reliability, Accessibility, and Timeliness

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31. Key technologies driving digital transformation in data centers include:

Machine Learning

Blockchain

Dial-up Modems

Artificial Intelligence

32. An organization wants to consume compute, network, and storage resources through self-service portal.

Which cloud service model provides this capability?

Software as a Service

Infrastructure as a Service

Platform as a Service

Data as a Service

33. An organization wants to secure and protect the data from unauthorized access on a storage medium.

Which security control helps to secure the data?

LUN masking

Encryption

Identity and Access

Degaussing

34. What is a function of a CDP appliance?

Contains the production volume that needs to be replicated

Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies

Manages both local and remote data replication

Implements data protection at the compute, fabric, or storage system level

35. Which of the following is a characteristic of a modern compute system in a data center?

Single-threaded processing

High-density form factors

Fixed-function hardware

Minimal cooling requirements

36. Why should organizations deploy FCoE network in a data center environment?

To enable data replication with Zero RPO

To provide faster storage access

To reduce the number of cables, NIC cards, and ports

To provide extensibility over long distances

37. Which storage infrastructure management activity involves measuring throughput of components and identifying bottlenecks?

Availability management

Security management

Capacity management

Performance management

38. What is an accurate statement about scale-out NAS?

Creates a different file system for each node in the cluster

Stripes data across nodes with mirror or parity protection

Supports only data replication for protecting data

Pools node resources in a cluster to work as multiple NAS devices

39. What improves the performance of multi-threaded large block I/O workloads on a solid state drive?

Parallel I/O channels

I/O coalescing

Native command queuing

High capacity RAM cache

40. Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was received?

Data integrity

Security

Scalability

Manageability

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41. Which cloud computing characteristic enables multi-tenancy and abstracts the location of provided resources?

Resource pooling

Measured service

Rapid elasticity

Broad network access

42. The exhibit represents an FCIP tunnel configuration that merges the two FC SANs at either end of the tunnel.

Which types of ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent on the FCIP gateway shown in the exhibit?

X = E_Port and Y = VE_Port

X = F_Port and Y = VN_Port

X = VF_Port and Y = E_Port

X = VN_Port and Y = VE_Port

43. Which are the components of an FCoE network? (Choose two)

FCoE Initiator

SCSI Target

Ethernet Switch

FC Switch

44. What is an accurate statement about Infrastructure as a Service?

Consumer has control over the operating systems and the deployed applications

Consumer only has control over user-specific application configuration settings

Consumer has control over network devices, compute systems, and storage systems

Consumer only has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment

45. Which block storage volume allocates all of the physical storage specified at the time it is created?

Thick provisioned LUN

Thin provisioned LUN

Thin provisioned RAID

Thick provisioned RAID

46. Which type of digital data has no defined format but has a self-describing structure that enables its analysis?

Semi-structured data

Structured data

Metadata

Quasi-structured data

47. What is an accurate statement about bridged iSCSI connectivity?

An iSCSI target provides both FCIP and iSCSI ports

An iSCSI initiator is connected to an FC target over an FCIP network

Both the iSCSI initiator and iSCSI target create virtual FC links with an iSNS server

An iSCSI initiator is configured with the gateway’s IP address as its target

48. Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an insecure network?

Secret-key cryptography

One-way hash function

Shared secret

OpenID control

49. The Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 4 occurs as follows:

- Monday = 8 PM to 11 PM

- Wednesday = 7 PM to 10 PM

- Thursday = 6 AM to 12 PM

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

28 hours

2 hours

38 hours

4 hours

50. In a virtualized environment, which method enables a virtual machine to be rolled back in case of a logical corruption to the virtual machine?

Virtual volume replication

VM snapshot

Storage array volume replication

VM clone

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51. What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.

Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.

Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

52. What is a benefit of using an existing IP-based network infrastructure for storage connectivity?

Provide a dedicated network for storage

Provide the ability to extend the network over long distances

Ensure lossless transmission of FC traffic over Ethernet

Ensure security by allowing only localized data movement

53. In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth to different network traffic classes?

Enhanced transmission selection

Priority-based flow control

Congestion notification

Data center bridging exchange protocol

54. In terms of storage infrastructure security, what does the term 'data at rest' refer to?

Data that is being transmitted over a network

Data stored on non-volatile media

Data stored in a backup

Data stored in volatile memory

55. Refer to the exhibit.

What type of Fibre Channel port does the “X” represent?

N_port

F_port

E_port

NL_port

56. An institution has made the decision to exit a client relationship due to anti-money laundering concerns. Prior to starting the close out process, the institution receives a written request from a law enforcement agency to keep the account open. The client is the subject of an ongoing investigation and law enforcement wants the institution to continue to monitor the account and report any suspicious activity.

What is primary consideration the institution should keep in mind when deciding whether to agree to this request?

The anticipated cost of complying with the law enforcement request

The number of suspicious transaction reports previously filed on the client

The fact that the institution has a solid record in complying with law enforcement requests

Whether the institution can continue to meet its regulatory obligations with the accounts open

57. Which network file sharing protocol provides cloud-based file sharing through a REST API interface?

HDFS

ZFS

FTP

58. What is a function of a cloud-based object storage gateway?

Creating a flat file system to store block data in cloud storage

Performing protocol conversion to send data directly to cloud storage

Creating object IDs before storing all objects in cloud storage

Converting a block storage system into an object storage system for cloud usage

59. Which technique prevents compute systems from gaining unauthorized access to storage volumes in a shared storage environment?

Fabric binding

Zoning

Concatenating metaLUNs

LUN masking

60. What is an advantage of implementing an image-based backup solution in a virtualized environment?

Backup process is offloaded from the production virtual machine

Eliminates the need for a proxy server

Eliminates the need for deduplication

Backup performance is improved through agents running on virtual machines

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61. Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label “X” represent in the exhibit?

Frame Header

CRC

SOF

Data Field

62. Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?

Vaulting

Mirroring

Cache tiering

Idle flushing

63. Which features are essential for ensuring data integrity in storage systems? (Choose two)

Deduplication

Checksums

Storage tiering

Write once, read many (WORM)

64. Which of the following are key components of an intelligent storage system?

(Choose two)

Central Processing Unit (CPU)

Tape Drives

Storage Controller

Floppy Disk

65. What is true regarding information-centric storage architecture?

Storage capacity can be increased dynamically without impacting information availability.

Storage architecture improves overall storage capacity utilization but decreases flexibility of information management.

Storage devices are internal to servers and are not shared between multiple compute systems.

Storage architecture reduces the cost of individual disk drives within the server but limits storage scalability.

66. Which storage architecture provides the ability to scale the capacity and performance of a single storage system by upgrading its controllers and storage?

Direct matrix

Scale-out

Virtual matrix

Scale-up

67. What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation?

Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact

Supports connectivity up to 15 million nodes

Requires at least one connectivity device

Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port

68. What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?

Confidentiality

Integrity

Availability

Repudiation

69. In Fiber Channel SAN topology, what does the term 'Fabric' refer to?

A point-to-point connection

A network switch-based topology

A type of storage device

A type of cabling used

70. Which product enables employees to enroll their mobile devices in an enterprise environment and ensures secure access from the devices to the enterprise resources?

Dell PowerEdge

Dell InTrust

VMware AirWatch

VMware AppDefense

Page 8 of 18

71. What is an accurate statement regarding virtual LANs?

Supports Fibre Channel network transport data security

Supports one or more logical L ANS operating over a single physical LAN

Provides hardware level connectivity and maintains physical L AN transport paths

Provides software level connectivity and maintains physical LAN transport paths

72. A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational from 8 AM to 8 PM, Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port 2 occurs on a particular week as follows:

- Monday = 10 AM to 12 PM

- Wednesday = 4 PM to 9 PM

- Thursday = 4 PM to 7 PM

- Friday = 3 PM to 6 PM

- Saturday = 9 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 2 in that week?

70%

71.6%

78.3%

80%

73. Which storage management function ensures that the services and service levels are delivered per SLAs?

Infrastructure discovery management

Portfolio management

Financial management

Operation management

74. In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?

RAID 3

RAID 5

RAID 6

RAID 10

75. What is a key benefit for deploying a remote data protection and recovery solution in a data center environment?

Maximizes application and information availability

Reduces required maintenance time for IT resources

Avoids security risks that exposes the business data

Reduces the cost of protecting data

76. An organization is planning to secure the connection between the data center and cloud while performing data backup and replication.

Which security control mechanism will help organization to achieve the desired security?

ldentity and Access management

Intrusion Detection and Prevention

Firewall

Virtual Private Network

77. An organization performs a full back up of its data every week. However, they are experiencing long backup windows and high network bandwidth consumption during the backup process.

Which type of deduplication should be deployed to reduce the backup window and network bandwidth consumption?

Source-based

Target-based

Inline

File-based target

78. Based on the exhibit, what does the "X", "Y", and "Z" represent in a NAS environment?

X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network

X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN

79. Which Dell EMC product enables continuous protection for any PIT recovery and offers multi-site support?

RecoverPoint

Avamar

SourceOne

SRDF

80. A consumer is interested in a service that provides multiple operating systems and programming frameworks for application development and deployment.

Which recommended cloud service model will meet these requirements?

Storage as a Service

Platform as a Service

Infrastructure as a Service

Software as a Service

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81. What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?

Provides workflows for automated execution of management tasks

Aggregates physical infrastructurecomponents into resource pools

Measures the consumption of IT resources byvarious services

Decouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware

82. Magnetic tape drive

Description:

A) Stores data on a circular disk with a ferromagnetic coating

B) Stores data on semiconductor-based memory

C) Stores data on a thin plastic film with a magnetic coating

D) Stores data on a polycarbonate disc with a reflective coating

1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C

1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D

1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

83. An organization wants to deploy a VM storage migration solution into their data center environment.

What is the result of deploying this type of solution?

Enables VMs to continue functioning when source data becomes unavailable

Improves the application security of migrated VMs

Enables efficient management of capacity across storage systems

Reduces overall storage capacity requirements

84. Which client-server protocol uses a ticket-based authentication mechanism?

CHAP

Kerberos

iSNS

OpenID

85. What is a typical configuration in a core-edge topology?

All compute systems are connected to the core-tier

Edge-tier switches are connected to each other

All storage devices are connected to the core-tier

Core-tier switches are isolated from each other

86. What is the role of access control in a storage infrastructure?

It prevents unauthorized physical access to storage devices

It encrypts data stored on the devices

It manages who has the permission to access and modify data

It monitors network traffic for suspicious activity

87. What triggers an appropriate workflow upon receiving a service provisioning or management request?

Alerts

Orchestrated operations

Recovery time objective

Infrastructure discovery

88. What accurately describes a VSAN?

A logical fabric on an FC SAN that enables communication among a group of nodes

A logical fabric on an FC SAN that has a 1-to-1 relationship with a zone in the FC SAN

A logical fabric across FC SANs that aggregates the FC SANs to create a network pool

A logical fabric across FC SANs that allows non-disruptive file mobility between the SANs

89. Which technology allows automation of sensors and devices to share and process information?

Internet of Things

Cloud computing

Artificial Intelligence

Deep Learning

90. What is a feature of 5G technology?

Higher connectivity density

Higher WAN bandwidth

Higher transmission distances

Higher LAN bandwidth

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91. What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?

Reduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.

Increases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic.

Increases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.

Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.

92. Which backup component sends metadata and tracking information about each backup to the system that maintains this information?

Backup agent

Storage node

Backup device

Backup server

93. Which of the following elements are crucial in a modern data center? (Choose two)

HVAC systems

Legacy hardware

Scalability

Paper logs for documentation

94. Which layer of the OSI reference model is responsible for logical addressing and routing?

Data Link

Session

Network

Transport

95. An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1.

What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?

4800

11200

16800

22400

96. What is an accurate statement about Governance?

Restrict access to certain users

Ensure removal of security risks

Authorize policy-making decisions

Demonstrate adherence to polices

97. What is provided by performing an infrastructure discovery?

Creating a list of infrastructure components and their related information

Classifying, organizing, and analyzing all infrastructure management best practices stored in data lakes

Standardizing on-going infrastructure management activities to maintain the storage infrastructure using automation

Gathering issues and tracking movement of data and services across the infrastructure

98. Match the Fibre Channel (FC) layers with their respective functions.

99. Which feature of an object-based storage system abstracts and provides a common view of storage independent of location to applications?

Global namespace

Flexible data access

Multi-tenancy

Scale-out architecture

100. A RAID set is created from eight disks, and a RAID level 5 is implemented on the RAID set.

If the strip size is 32 KB, what is the stripe size?

128

160

224

256

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101. Which capability is provided by a software-defined storage controller?

Ability to pool and abstract physical storage and present it as an open storage platform

Ability for multiple operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical compute system

Mechanisms to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management

Single self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components

102. What is a goal of cyber recovery?

Isolate copies of critical data to ensure that an uncompromised copy always exists

Abstract the physical compute hardware from the operating system and applications

Evaluate systems, networks, and applications to find vulnerabilities

Determine persistence access of system, networks, and applications

103. Which management monitoring parameter involves examining the amount of infrastructure resources used?

Configuration

Capacity

Performance

Availability

104. When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?

105. Which type of login assigns an FC address to a node in an FC SAN environment?

PRLI

FLOGI

WWNN

PLOGI

106. Which EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?

ECS Appliance

XtremIO

Data Domain

Centera

107. Which is a characteristic of RAID 6?

All parity stored on a single disk

Double parity

Single parity

Parity not used

108. Which cloud computing characteristic enables consumers to adapt to changing resource requirements by dynamically provisioning and releasing resources?

Resource pooling

Broad network access

Rapid elasticity

On-demand self-service

109. The graphic represents an FCIP tunnel configuration that merges two Fibre Channel SANs at either end of the tunnel.

Which types of ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent on the FCIP gateway?

X = VF_port and Y = E_port

X = E_port and Y = VE_port

X = EX_port and Y = VE_port

X = F_port and Y = E_port

110. What is a benefit of unified storage systems?

Provides the capability to separately plan the capacity consumption of object-based data

Eliminates the need to use SATA disk drives to store less valued data

Enables rapid development of modern applications by using a common storage pool

Increases the overall storage capacity utilization with no stranded capacity

Page 12 of 18

111. Which standard provides lossless transport to an FCoE Ethernet network?

Remote Direct Memory Access

Data Center Bridging Capability Exchange

Priority-based Flow Control

Data Center Bridging

112. A software-defined data center (SDDC) is characterized by:

Hardware-centric control

Manual configuration processes

Automation and orchestration

Fixed resources

113. Which of the following is a key security control for protecting data at rest on a storage device?

Firewall

Data Encryption

Antivirus

Intrusion Detection System

114. What are the components of an intelligent storage system? (Choose two)

RAID Controllers

HTTP Protocols

Cache Memory

Wireless Adapters

115. What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?

Increased cluster performance

Reduced capital expenditure

Simplified cluster management

Decreased data duplication

116. In a data center, which type of connectivity is essential for disaster recovery?

Intranet

Dial-up

Redundant internet connections

Bluetooth

117. A host sends one write I/O to the RAID 1 array.

How many writes does it take for the array to store the data?

Two write I/Os

One write I/Os

Six write I/Os

Four write I/Os

118. What refers to an IT infrastructure's ability to function based on business expectations during its specified time of operations?

Information availability

Disaster recovery

Compliance adherence

Business agility

119. An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution in their data center environment They are concerned about the application servers' performance and a long backup window during backups. However, they want to retain their existing backup application.

Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended?

Target-based deduplication

Source-based with fixed-length block deduplication

Source-based global deduplication

Source-based with variable-length deduplication

120. What is a benefit of compute virtualization?

Improves the utilization of resources

Eliminates the need for physical memory

Enables running a single operating system per physical machine

Enables integration between software and hardware

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121. Which state change notifications (SCNs) are issued by an iSNS server to the registered devices?

CPU events

Output events

Input events

Network events

122. What is a function of a continuous data protection (CDP) appliance?

Runs data protection software and manages replications within and across data centers

Migrates deduplicated data from the source volume to the target volume during replication

Stores all data that has changed from the time the replication session started

Intercepts writes to the production volume and splits each write into two copies

123. Which process uses a file-level storage tiering technique to perform policy-based data movement?

Archiving

Deduplication

Replication

Backup

124. Which management function involves configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN in a data center environment?

Performance Management

Change Management

Security Management

Configuration Management

125. What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?

Creates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the components

Standardizes on-going infrastructure management activities andassesses potential risks of the activities

Classifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management bestpractices stored in data lakes

Detects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to eliminate the attacks

126. In which data access method does the file system’s user component reside on the compute system and its storage component reside on the storage system?

Sector-based

Block-based

File-based

Object-based

127. Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do “X” and “Y” represent in the graphic?

X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port

X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an E_Port

X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port

128. What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?

Ensures content authenticity and integrity

Supports location independence using different content IDs for an object

Provides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS

Enables modification of archived data

129. What is an impact of a Denial-of-Service attack?

Privileges are intentionally misused to compromise data security

User’s credentials are eavesdropped by the attacker

Computing resources are exhausted and made unavailable to users

User’s accounts and data are compromised by malicious insiders

130. What is a characteristic of software-defined networking?

Abstracts and separates the control plane from the data plane

Data plane sends instructions to the controlplane to handle network traffic

Controller in network switchestakes over data plane functions

External software combines both data plane and control plane functions

Page 14 of 18

131. What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

Avoid performing data archiving.

Reduce the RPO to near-zero.

Reduce the deduplication ratio.

Avoid performing data backups.

132. In a RAID 6 array with four disks, what is the total usable data storage capacity on the array if the disk size is 200 GB?

200 GB

400 GB

600 GB

800 GB

133. A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4500 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.

What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?

134. What is an example of an availability management task in storage infrastructure management?

Designing a new replication solution for data redundancy

Performing trend analysis of storage space consumption

Tracking configuration changes to storage components

Specifying storage space quotas for users

135. Which capability is provided by software-defined networking?

Ability to combine both data plane and control plane functions on a single physical network component

A single control point to the entire network infrastructure enabling policy-based network management

Ability to automatically create application programming interfaces for centralized management

A single self-contained package with integrated hardware and software components

136. What is an accurate statement about VLANs and VSANs in an FCoE environment with an existing FC SAN?

A dedicated VLAN must be configured for each VSAN

VLANs configured for VSANs must carry regular LAN traffic

Default VLAN must map to all VSANs defined in the FCoE switch

A minimum of four VLANs must be created to isolate VSAN traffic

137. Which interface does an SCM device use to connect to intelligent storage system controllers?

NVMe

SATA

SAS

138. Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a Fibre Channel (FC) SAN?

Exchange

Sequence

Frame

Domain

139. Which Dell EMC product is a software-defined storage platform that abstracts, pools, and automates a data center’s physical storage infrastructure?

XtremIO

ViPR Controller

VxFlex OS

PowerMax

140. An organization is planning to adopt pre-integrated systems to deploy compute, network, storage, and management functions as a single engineered solution.

Which approach should the organization adopt?

DIY approach

Vendor ready solutions

DCaaS solution

Service based approach

Page 15 of 18

141. Match each OSD features with its description.

142. In a NAS environment, which file system provides a public or open variation of the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol and uses the TCP/IP protocol?

Hadoop Distributed File System (HDFS)

New Technology File System (NTFS)

Common Internet File System (CIFS)

Network File System (NFS)

143. What is a specialized replication technique that enables moving data from one storage system to another within a data center without incurring downtime?

VM-level backup

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