ISTQB-CTFL Dumps Guarantee You Pass ISTQB-CTFL Exam Easily

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October 10, 2023

As new threats and vulnerabilities emerge, the ISTQB-CTFL exam is updated to reflect the latest trends in ISTQB Foundation Level. By using ISTQB-CTFL exam dumps questions, you can ensure that you're staying up-to-date with the latest exam content and are fully prepared to address new challenges in ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam. ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL exam dumps questions can help you optimize your preparation and ensure that you're fully prepared for the exam. Practice free ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL exam dumps questions below.

Page 1 of 12

1. Which of the following BEST describes a test summary report for executive-level employees

The report is detailed and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

The report is detailed and includes specific information on defects and trends

The report is high-level and includes a status summary of defects by priority or budget

The report is high-level and includes specific information on defects and trends

2. Which TWO of the following are benefits of continuous integration?

I. Allows earlier detection and easier root cause analysis of integration problems and conflicting changes.

II. Removes the need for manual test analysis, design and execution.

III. Removes the dependency on automated regression packs when integrating larger systems, or components.

iV. Gives the development team regular feedback on whether the code is working.

Select the correct answer:

i and iv

i and ii

i and iii

iii and iv

3. Following a risk-based testing approach you have designed 10 tests to cover a product risk with a high-risk level. You want to estimate, adopting the three-point test estimation technique, the test effort required to reduce the risk level to zero by executing those 10 tests.

You made the following three initial estimates:

• most optimistic = 6 person hours

• most likely = 30 person hours

• most pessimistic = 54 person hours

Based only on the given information, which of the following answers about the three-point test estimation technique applied to this problem is true?

The final estimate is between 22 person hours and 38 person hours

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the initial most likely estimate as the final estimate

The final estimate is between 6 person hours and 54 person hours

The final estimate is exactly 30 person hours because the technique uses the arithmetic mean of the three initial estimates as the final estimate

4. Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

5. Which of the following statements about independent testing is WRONG?

Independent testing is necessary because developers don't know any testing.

Independent testing is best suited for the system test level.

A certain degree of independence makes the tester more effective at finding defects.

Independent test teams may find other types of detects than developers who are familiar with the system's structure.

6. A software calculates the annual car tax using three inputs:

- E; the emission level of the vehicle

- P: the power of the vehicle

-T the type of the vehicle

The input value for P can be integer positive values between 15 and 350.

Which of the following answers contains a correct list of a boundary values for the P input?

14,351

14,15,350,351

15,350

5.175.500

7. A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

8. Which of the following statements about checklist-based testing is TRUE?

Checklist-based testing is a technique for managing the review meeting that can be applied in those reviews where the use of checklists is mandatory, as is often the case in formal reviews.

Checklist-based testing is a review technique that can be used in a formal review process where reviewers, during individual review, try to detect issues within the work product based on a checklist

In checklist-based testing, using checklists at a high level of detail is more likely to produce test cases that are easier to reproduce than those using checklists at a low level of detail

Checklists used in checklist-based testing should be reviewed periodically for updates as, over time, test cases designed using the same checklist may become less effective at finding defects.

9. Consider the following user story about an e-commerce website's registration feature that only allows registered users to make purchases; As a new user, I want to register to the website, so that I can start shopping online"

The following are some of the acceptance criteria defined for the user story

[a] The registration form consists of the following fields: username, email address, first name, last name, date of birth, password and repeat password.

[b] To submit the registration request, the new user must fill in all the fields of the registration form with valid values and must agree to the terms and conditions.

[c] To be valid, the email address must not be provided by free online mail services that allow to create disposable email addresses. A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid address is entered.

[d] To be valid, the first name and last name must contain only alphabetic characters and must be

between 2 and 80 characters long A dedicated error message must be presented to inform the new user when an invalid first name and/or the last name is entered

[e] After submitting the registration request, the new user must receive an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

Based only on the given information, which of the following ATDD tests is MOST LIKELY to be written first?

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the email address, where he/she enters an e-mail address provided by a free online mail service that allow to create disposable email addresses. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

The new user enters valid values in the fields of the registration form, except for the first name, where he/she enters a first name with 10 characters that contains a number. Then he/she is informed by the website about this issue.

The user accesses the website with a username and password, and successfully places a purchase order for five items, paying by Mastercard credit card

The new user enters valid values in all the fields of the registration form, confirms to accept all the terms and conditions, submits the registration request and then receives an e-mail containing the confirmation link to the e-mail address specified in the registration form

10. What is typically NOT included in a test progress report?

Information about test obstacles during a test period

Statistics on the success of each tester in finding bugs

Changed risks within the test period

Test status in relation to defined test metrics (including exit criteria)

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11. As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Expected result

Test case identifier

Test setup details

Actual result

12. The following open incident report provided:

Date: 01.01.01

Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.

Severity: High

Life Cycle: Integration

Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?

I. Identification or configuration of the application

II. The name of the developer

III. Recommendation of the developer

IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button

II, III

13. A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

14. The following requirement is given “Set X to be the sum of Y and Z”.

All the following four implementations have bugs.

Which one of the following bugs can be caught by Static Analysis?

int x = 1. int y = 2. int y = 3. X = y=z;

int x = 1. int y = 2. int z = 3. X = z-y

int x = 1. Int y = 2. Int z = 3. Z = x +y

int y = 2 Int z = 3. Y = z+y

15. In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests.

Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

16. A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

17. Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

18. Why is it important to select a test technique?

There are usually loo many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.

The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.

Selecting the right test technique in a given situation Increases the effectiveness of the test process Oy creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.

Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.

19. Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

20. Which of the following options is correct with respect to the differentiation of black-box techniques, white-box techniques, and experience-based testing?

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

Page 3 of 12

21. A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.

Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?

A. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.

B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it

C. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests

D. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product

22. A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.

Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue

The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed

You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue

You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

23. What role in a formal or technical review should mediate between different opinions to ensure an effective review?

Scribe (or recorder)

Manager

Moderator (or facilitator)

Reviewer

24. Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Tools to assess data quality

Tools to support usability testing

Tools to support specialized testing needs

Tools to support static testing

25. Which of the following options is a success factor for formal reviews (e.g. inspections)?

Provide participants an adequate amount of time for preparation for the review.

Evaluate participants on how they spend their time and attention to detail.

Use only one type of review so that participants do not have to get used to a different type of review process as often.

Conduct the review in a few large sections, each of which participants are to review as a whole.

26. Which two of the following statements describe the advantages provided by good traceability between the test basis and test work products?

I. Analyzing the impact of changes.

iI. A measure of code quality.

iiI. Accurate test estimation.

iV. Making testing auditable.

Select the correct answer:

i and ii

i and iv

i and iii

ii and iii

27. Which of the following statements about test activities that form the overall test process is correct?

Test planning determines what is to be tested based on the test basis.

Test analysis evaluates the test base and the test elements to identify inconsistencies.

Test design develops and prioritizes test procedures and may create automated test scripts.

Test implementation realization answers the question of how to perform the test, and the test procedure compares the results of the test with the expected results.

28. Evaluating the review findings

Which of the following BEST matches the review process main activities with the appropriate specific review activities?

2-a, 4-a, 5-b, 6-c, 1-d, 3-d

2-a, 5-a, 1-b, 4-b, 3-c, 6-d

1-a, 4-b, 5-b, 6-c, 2-d, 3-d

2-a, 4-b, 5-c, 1-d. 3-d, 6-d

29. Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

30. Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

The project manager's preference

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

The type of product being developed

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31. Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

32. Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

A. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.

B. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

C. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

D. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.

33. Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

configuration management tool

unit test framework tool

test design tool

monitoring tool

34. Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

35. Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes branch testing?

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

In branch testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between decisions, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise flow transfers in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

In branch testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is measured as the number of branches exercised by the test cases divided by the total number of branches expressed as a percentage.

In branch testing, the coverage items are executable decisions. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved. Coverage is expressed as a percentage.

36. Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

III

I, III, IV

I, II, IV

37. Which of the following is LEAST likely to describe a task performed by someone in a testing role?

Create test completion report

Evaluate test basis and test object

Assess testability of test object

Define test environment requirements

38. Consider the following examples of risks identified in different software development projects:

[I]. The contrast color ratio for both normal text and large text of a website does not comply with the applicable accessibility guidelines, making it difficult for many users to read the content on the pages

[II]. A development vendor fails to deliver their software system on time, causing significant delays to system integration testing activities that have been planned as part of a development project for a system of systems

[III]. People in the test team do not have sufficient skills to automate tests at the test levels required by the test automation strategy which does not allow production of an effective regression test suite

[IV]. In a web application, data from untrusted sources is not subject to proper input validation, making the application vulnerable to several security attacks

Which of the following statements is true?

[I] and [III] are product risks; [II] and [IV] are project risks

[I] and [IV] are product risks. [II] and [III] are project risks

[II], [III] and [IV] are product risks; [I] is a project risk

[IV] is a product risk; [I]. [II] and [III] are project risks

39. Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

40. A test engineer finds a defect while testing. After the developer has fixed the defect, the test engineer decides to re-run a complete section of the tests.

Which of the following is correct?

The lest engineer should not re-run the tests, as they have already been run, and results recorded.

The test engineer should not re-run the tests, they should be part of the developer tests.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, in order to ensure that new defects have not been introduced by the fix.

The test engineer should re-run the tests, because the defect shows that the test cases need to be updated.

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41. Given some statements about independence of testing

i. Independence is a replacement for familiarity with the code

ii. Independence helps remove the biases produced because of own work

iii. Similar kind of failures can be detected by anyone

iv Assumptions by different people are different revealing weaknesses

Which of the following CORRECTLY represents the benefits?

ii and iv

iii and iv

i and iii

i and iv

42. An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.

Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)

1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x

aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x

1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19

1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby

43. Which ONE of the following activities TYPICALLY belongs to the planning phase of the review process?

A separate defect report is created for each identified defect so that corrective actions can be tracked.

Each reviewer conducts an individual review to identify anomalies, recommendations, and questions.

The purpose and scope of the review are defined, as well as the work product to be reviewed and the exit criteria.

The reviewers analyze and discuss the anomalies found during the review in a joint meeting.

44. Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow the test script.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

45. Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

46. Which or the following would be a key difference between a peer review of code and static analysis of code using a tool?

A peer reviews finds defects while static analysis finds failures.

Static analysis targets the code technically whereas Peer review is applicable to further aspects.

Peer reviews cannot find missing requirements whereas static analysis can

A peer reviews find failures while static analysis finds defects.

47. Given the following state model of sales order software:

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

SHIPPED -> INVOICED

INVOICED -> CANCELLED

CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

48. Which ONE of the following options corresponds to an activity in the testing process in which testable features are identified?

Test design

Test analysis

Test implementation

Test execution

49. It can verify externally visible behaviors

Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?

1,3, 4.5

2,4,5

1,2,4

1,2, 3. 4,5

50. Select the roles required in a formal review:

Author, Management, Facilitator, Review Leader, Reviewers, Scribe

Author, Tester. Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Author, Business analyst. Facilitator, Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Author. Developer, Facilitator. Review Leader. Reviewers. Scribe

Page 6 of 12

51. For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:

- The bank card is valid

- The PIN code is correct

- Money is available in the user's account

The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:

- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected

- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code

- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount

- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money

Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?

Use case based testing

Decision table

Boundary value analysis

Equivalence class partitioning

52. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about White-box testing?

White-box testing helps find defects even when specifications are vague because it takes into account the code

box testing helps find defects because it provides for requirements based coverage

White-box testing helps find defects because it focuses on defects rather than failures

White-box testing helps find defects because they can be used to measure statement coverage

53. Which of the following BEST describes checklist-based testing?

Checklist-based testing includes formal tests from detailed lists of test conditions, allowing much repeatability

Checklist-based testing may involve a list of tests based on what is important to the user as well as an understanding of why and how software fails

Checklist-based testing, while popular, provides little consistency and few guidelines concerning test case development

Checklist-based testing is restricted to non-functional testing, including usability, performance, and security test

54. Which of the following statements refers to a good testing practice that applies to all software development lifecycles?

Each test level should have its own specific test objectives that should be consistent with the software development lifecycle phase or type of activities it addresses.

Test analysis and design for any test levels should begin as soon as coding is complete, and all system components are available for testing

The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a development team is face-to-face conversation.

All the tests should be automated and run as part of the continuous integration process with every software change

55. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the term 'debugging'?

There is no difference between debugging and testing.

Debugging is a confirmation activity that checks whether fixes resolved defects.

Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyses and fixes defects.

Debugging is of no relevance in Agile development.

56. Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Functional Testing

Code inspection

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

Coverage analysis

57. Which review type, also known as a “buddy check”, is commonly used in Agile development?

Inspection.

Walkthrough.

Technical review.

Informal review.

58. Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items.

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Ill

I, IV

Ill

59. A document descnbes the test procedures that have been derived for the identified test sets Among other things, the order in which the test cases in the corresponding test set are to be executed according to the dependencies described by preconditions and postconditions is specified.

This document is a typical work product produced as part of:

Test design.

Test analysis

Test Implementation.

Test monitoring and control

60. Which are the MAIN goals of risk management in a software project?

To increase the success probability for the project regardless of costs.

To increase focus on preventative processes and to increase satisfaction for the testers.

To control contractual problems and minimize the impacts of company policies.

To reduce the probability of undesired situations and to reduce the effect of potential impact.

Page 7 of 12

61. Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?

Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)

Potentially endless loops

Referencing a variable with an undefined value

Security vulnerabilities

62. Which of the following statements regarding the impact of the chosen software development lifecycle model on testing is true?

The chosen software development lifecycle model has no impact on the number of regression test cases.

The chosen software development lifecycle model influences when testing activities should start and end.

The chosen software development lifecycle model determines the type of tests to be performed.

The chosen software development lifecycle model does not affect the scope of the non-functional tests and the test tools to be used.

63. Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

I, III, IV

I, II, III

III, IV

II, III, IV

64. Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

65. The following state diagram is given as basis for state transition testing and contains only valid transitions:

Explanation of the state diagram: States are depicted as nodes. The initial state is I, the final state is

F. A state transition is depicted as a directed arrow with the initiating event as a label, e. g. from I to S1 with event a, and is also written as a triple (I, a, S1). Note: A test case is a sequence of events that initiates the corresponding sequence of state transitions.

The state diagram contains the following 7 state transitions:

(I, a, S1)

(S1, a, S2), (S1, b, S3), (S1, c, F)

(S2, a, S3)

(S3, a, S2), (S3, b, F)

What is the minimum number of test cases to achieve 100% coverage of all valid state transitions in the diagram?

66. Which of the following statements about testware are correct?

I When closing the test activities, all the testware resources can be uninstalled and released

II All the testware should be subject to Configuration Management

III. The testware. at the end of the project, should be transferred to the organization responsible for maintenance

IV The developers are responsible for the correct installation of the testware

II, Ill

I, Ill

I, IV

II, IV

67. Which of the following is a correct reason to apply test automation?

When a new test automation tool is launched

When there are a lot of repetitive testing tasks

When it is easy to automate

When it is cheap to buy test automation tools

68. Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Kick-off meeting

Low cost

Individual preparation

Metrics analysis

69. Which of the following BEST explains a drawback of independent testing?

Having the business organization participate as an independent test team can hurt the overall testing effort since business participants are often not trained nor experienced in testing

Due to their differing backgrounds and perspectives, an independent test team may discover defects which the developers did not uncover

An independent test team may be isolated from the rest of the development and project team

An independent test team may possess specializations in specific test types such as usability or security which detract from the overall effectiveness of the test team

70. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

Page 8 of 12

71. Which of the following lists factors That contribute to PROJECT risks?

skill and staff shortages; problems in defining the right requirements, contractual issues.

skill and staff shortages; software does not perform its intended functions; problems in defining the right requirements.

problems in defining the right requirements; contractual issues; poor software quality characteristics.

poor software quality characteristics; software does not perform its intended functions.

72. Consider a program that computes the factorial of a number (n).

From the specifications you know that:

• I n < 0. a message "Value out of range" must be issued.

• If 0 < n < 100, the program calculates the factorial and returns the number

• If 100 < n < 200 message "Value out of range" must be issued

There are 3 partitions - one for negative numbers, one for numbers up to 100 and the last one for numbers up to 200

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because factorial of numbers close to 200 will be very large

The equivalence partitions cannot be determined for this question because the error message for two partitions is exactly same

The requirements are not correct because the partitions are overlapping

73. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of these items will be MOST useful to the developers to help them identify and remove the defect causing this failure?

1,2,5

1,2,3,4,5

1,2,4

3,4

74. Which of the following statements is TRUE'?

Unlike functional testing, non-fundional testing can only be applied to conventional systems, not artificial intelligence-based system.

Functional testing focuses on what the system is supposed to do, while white-box testing focuses on how well the system does what it is supposed to do

Functional testing can be applied to all test levels, while non-functional testing can be applied only to system and acceptance test levels.

Black-box test techniques and experience-based test techniques may be applicable to both functional testing and non-functional testing

75. Which of the following statements is assigned correctly as a project or product risk?

The software does not perform its intended functions according to the specification: this is a project risk.

The gradual expansion of the project scope result in significant rework: this is a product risk.

The system architecture does not adequately support some of the non-functional requirements: this is a product risk.

User experience feedback does not meet product expectations: this is a project risk.

76. The fact that defects are usually not evenly distributed among the various modules that make up a software application, but rather their distribution tend to reflect the Pareto principle:

is a false myth

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as Tests wear out'

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Defects cluster together'

is expressed by the testing principle referred to as 'Bug prediction'

77. Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

78. Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?

I. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.

II. Current quality of the test object.

III. Adequacy of the test approach.

IV. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.

V. All the above.

Select the correct answer:

Only i and i

Only i and ii

Only I, ii and i

Only

79. For the following pseudo-code determine number of tests required for 100% statement coverage

IF Gender = Boy

If Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 1

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 2

ENDIF

ELSE

IF Age > 3 AND Age < 5

Shoe Size = 0

ELSE IF Age >=5 AND Age < 7

Shoe Size = 1

ENDIF

ENDIF

80. A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware.

The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds'

Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

Page 9 of 12

81. In a museum there are staggered entrance fees:

Free admission: children under 14 years

Reduced admission: young people aged 14 and under 18, retiree, students and welfare recipients

Regular price: all other persons

Which of the following four options describes the minimum set of test data that reaches 100% coverage of all valid equivalence classes for the admission fees?

Child (12 years), student (23 years), retiree (68 years)

Youth (16 years), adult (35 years), adult (60 years)

Child (12 years), welfare recipient (45 years), retiree (68 years)

Child (12 years), adult (35 years), retiree (68 years)

82. Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

83. During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

• Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

• Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

• Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

Test planning.

Test analysis.

Test design.

Test monitoring and control.

84. Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the third test quadrant (Q3)?

This test quadrant contains smoke tests and non-functional tests (except usability tests). These tests are often automated.

This test quadrant is business-facing and criticizes the system. It contains exploratory testing, usability testing, and user acceptance testing.

This test quadrant contains functional tests, examples, user story tests, user experience prototypes, API testing, and simulations. These tests check the acceptance criteria and can be manual or automated.

This test quadrant is technology-facing and supports the team. These tests should be automated and included in the continuous integration (CI) process.

85. In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations.

This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Tests wear out

Absence-of-errors fallacy

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

Defects cluster together

86. Consider the following user story and its acceptance criteria:

User Story:

As a member of the "Agnotoly" association, I want to be able to pay the association’s dues through an automatic payment method so that I can forget about payment deadlines.

Acceptance Criteria:

The member can only pay with ‘Agnesis Master’ credit card.

The member must register their cell phone number.

The member must register the credit card in the payment system.

The member must select a payment method (monthly or annual).

The member must accept the terms and conditions for the selected method.

If terms and conditions are accepted, the system sends an OTP (one-time password) to the member’s phone for verification.

The payment method is registered only after OTP verification.

Once the payment method is registered, the system will charge on the first business day of the following month.

Test Cycle Results:

Members successfully paid dues using the credit card.

Payments were processed monthly and for over a year.

Which ONE of the following options identifies the acceptance criteria that has NOT been fully covered?

Acceptance criteria 8 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Acceptance criteria 4 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

All acceptance criteria have been fully covered during the above test cycle.

Acceptance criteria 6 has not been fully covered during the above test cycle.

87. Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

88. Which test approach will best fit a new project, with little documentation and high probability for bugs?

Exploratory testing

Requirements based testing

Metric based approach

Regression testing

89. In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

90. You are working in an agile team on the creation of software for use in robotic assistance systems that support industrial manufacturing processes. You are currently in the effort estimation phase using planning poker.

In the current sprint, three user stories are to be implemented:

A . The assistance system is to have a customizable layout. For this purpose, the user should be able to choose between 3 combinations of font size and background color at startup.

B . In the initialization phase, the assistance system should validate the inputs of the 10 customer specific and process specific parameters against a list of 5 consistency rules and display the result to the user.

C . The assistance system currently supports the manufacturing process with 2 robot gripper arms, this shall be extended to 5 gripper arms. In addition, the system shall perform a pre-calculation of the movements of all gripper arms in real time and automatically stop the system in case of a calculated collision of the gripper arms.

You are now asked to estimate the test effort for each of these user stories by using planning poker.

The following value rules apply for the test effort estimation:

3 - low (<= 10 test cases)

8 - medium (> 10 and <= 20 test cases)

13 - high (> 20 and <= 50 test cases)

21 - very high (> 50 and <= 100 test cases)

34 - too complex (number of test cases cannot be estimated from information)

For each of the three user stories, which planning poker value makes the most sense when estimating the test effort?

A. A:3; B:21; C:8;

B. A:21; B:13; C:13;

C. A:3; B:13; C:34;

D. A:13; B:13; C:13;

Page 10 of 12

91. Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Level of risk of the product or features

Budget to do testing

A particular tester involved in testing

Time available to do testing

92. Who of the following has the best knowledge to decide what tests in a test project should be automated?

The developer

The customer

The development manager

The test leader

93. Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (used for questions 20-22):

An intelligent application for agricultural use incorporates temperature sensors located at different points of an enclosure. The sensors measure and record the temperature at regular intervals and extract the statistical values for these measurements. These values include the average daily temperature.

A new variety of tomatoes is currently being grown and the “World Organization for Happy Tomatoes” has established temperature ranges related to vegetative development.

When the system establishes that the average temperature is within a specific range, it emits a value that will be used to monitor and control the crop.

Using the equivalence partitioning technique, identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

{7,10,21,40}

{8,10,25,40}

{7,10,25,29}

{7,10,25,40}

94. Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?

Planned tests have been executed.

Availability of testable requirements.

The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.

The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.

95. A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?

The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.

The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.

The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development

96. Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Traceability may be required by IT governance rules

Traceability may help evaluate the extent of test coverage

Traceability may allow testing to be auditable

Traceability may make it harder to understand the impact of changes

97. Pariksha labs is a mature software testing company. They are TMMi level 5 certified. Their testing processes are well defined.

Which ONE of the following statements is likely to be CORRECT about them?

The company uses same test strategy for all the projects doing minor changes based on test manager responsible for the project because their test strategy template is very mature and do not need to change

They try to perform 100% automation for every project because automation is a must for efficiency

Same set of testing processes are used by them without needing any tweaks because that is the hallmark of a mature testing company.

The question about the test design techniques to be used is determined based on various factors such as the domain and expectations of the stakeholders

98. What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Acceptance testing

Structural testing

Integration testing

Exploratory testing

99. After being in operation for many years, a document management system must be decommissioned as it has reached its end of life. This system will not be replaced by any other new system. A legal obligation provides that all documents within the system must be kept for at least 20 years in a state archive.

Which of the following statements about maintenance testing for decommissioning of this system is TRUE?

No maintenance testing is required as this system will not be replaced.

Data migration testing is required as part of maintenance testing

Confirmation testing is required as part of maintenance testing.

Regression testing is required as part of maintenance testing

100. Consider the following table, which contains information about test cases from the test management system:

Which ONE of the following options organizes the test cases based on the statement coverage strategy, while considering practical constraints?

{TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 50; TC 70; TC 60; TC 80; TC 90}

{TC 10; TC 30; TC 20; TC 60; TC 40; TC 80; TC 90; TC 50; TC 70}

{TC 80; TC 70; TC 50; TC 60; TC 20; TC 30; TC 10; TC 40; TC 90}

{TC 60; TC 80; TC 40; TC 90; TC 50; TC 10; TC 70; TC 30; TC 20}

Page 11 of 12

101. Which is an advantage of using testers that are independent from the development team?

Independent testers support the developers with their feedback on coding rules and architecture design.

Developers can delegate their sense of responsibility for quality to testers.

Independent testers have a different perspective and can find defects that developers miss.

Independent testers will identify themselves more with the project and the project goals and have good relations with the development team.

102. A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things.

Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Identification of unreachable code

Report on adherence to the coding standards

Number of comment lines

Number of source code lines

103. A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display.

Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

(0.12.13.18.19)

(4.5.15.20)

104. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

105. Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used. Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development. Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models. Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

106. Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

107. Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

108. Which of the following is a test-first approach, where tests that express a shared understanding from stakeholders of how the application is expected to work, are first written in business-readable language (following the Given/When/Then format), and then made executable to drive development?

Test-Driven Development (TDD)

Acceptance Test-Driven Development (ATDD)

Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)

Domain-Driven Design (DDD)

109. Which of the following statements is NOT an objective of testing?

Create confidence in the quality of the test object.

Check whether the test object fulfils the specified requirements.

Provide sufficient information for stakeholders to make decisions.

Fix defects after they have been found and analyzed.

110. Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?

Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.

In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.

Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.

Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.

Page 12 of 12

111. Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I. Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii. Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii. Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

I, ii and v

i and iii

112. Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is FALSE?

The shift-left approach can only be implemented with test automation

The shift-left approach in testing is compatible with DevOps practices.

The shift-left approach can involve security vulnerabilities

The shift-left approach can be supported by static analysis tools.

113. Which ONE of the following tools would be MOST SUITABLE for facilitating the creation of test cases, test data, and test procedures?

Test design and implementation tools are specifically designed for creating test cases, test data, and test procedures.

Static testing tools as they assist the tester in conducting reviews and static analysis.

DevOps tools, as they support the automated build process and CI/C

Test execution and coverage tools facilitate the automated execution of tests and the measurement of test coverage.

114. Which of the following are the phases of the ISTQB fundamental test process?

Test planning and control, Test analysis and design, Test implementation and execution, Evaluating ex t criteria and reporting. Test closure activities

Test planning, Test analysis and design. Test implementation and control. Checking test coverage and reporting, Test closure activities

Test planning and control, Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution, Evaluating test coverage and reporting, Retesting and regression testing, Test closure activities

Test planning. Test specification and design. Test implementation and execution. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting. Retesting and test closure activities

115. Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Boundary value analysis.

Error guessing

Exploratory testing

Fault attack

116. Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?

Completion of architecture of the bank system

Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application

Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application

Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works

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