Prepare CCSK Exam with Using CCSK Dump Questions

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June 20, 2025

If you are serious about passing your CSA Cert CCSK certification exam, practicing with CCSK dumps questions is an essential step in your preparation process. These CCSK dumps will help you assess your knowledge, identify your strengths and weaknesses, and improve your chances of passing the exam on the first try. So why wait? Start practicing today and give yourself the best possible chance of success! Test free CCSK exam dumps questions below.

Page 1 of 9

1. How can web security as a service be deployed for a cloud consumer?

By proxying or redirecting web traffic to the cloud provider

By utilizing a partitioned network drive

On the premise through a software or appliance installation

Both A and C

None of the above

2. In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

3. What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

4. In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

5. Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

Multi-tenancy

Nation-state boundaries

Measured service

Unlimited bandwidth

Hybrid clouds

6. Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

On-Demand Self-Service

Broad Network Access

Resource Pooling

Rapid Elasticity

7. How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Single key for all data owners

One key per data owner

Multiple keys per data owner

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

8. According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

9. What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

Agile

BusOps

DevOps

SecDevOps

Scrum

10. What is a key characteristic of serverless functions in terms of execution environment?

They need continuous monitoring by the user

They run on dedicated long-running instances

They require pre-allocated server space

They are executed in isolated, ephemeral environments

Page 2 of 9

11. Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

Spam filtering

Authentication

Provisioning

Web filtering

Intrusion detection

12. What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

They lower storage costs

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

They facilitate data encryption

They improve system performance

13. What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

By conducting regular security audits and updates

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

14. Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

Relies only on automated security testing tools

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

Integrates security early in the development process

15. What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

16. How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

17. Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

18. What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

A. To create isolated virtual networks

B. To monitor network performance and activity

C. To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D. To encrypt data for secure transmission

19. Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

20. ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

More efficient and timely system updates

ISO 27001 certification

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

Lock-In

Page 3 of 9

21. What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

22. Which term describes the practice in cloud compliance where a customer acquires a set of pre-approved regulatory or standards-based controls from a compliant provider?

Automated compliance

Attestation inheritance

Audit inheritance

Compliance inheritance

23. What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

Discovery

Custody

Subpoena

Risk Assessment

Scope

24. What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

It removes the need for manual testing.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

25. Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

Network as a Service (NaaS)

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

26. Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

A. Use of encryption for all data at rest

B. Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C. Regular software updates and patch management

D. Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

27. What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Developing and updating incident response policies

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

Performing detailed forensic investigations

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

28. ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

Resource isolation may fail

Provider may change physical location

Mass layoffs may occur

Non-binding agreements put at risk

29. In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

30. What is true of a workload?

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

It does not require a hardware stack

It is always a virtual machine

It is configured for specific, established tasks

It must be containerized

Page 4 of 9

31. What is resource pooling?

The provider’s computing resources are pooled to serve multiple consumers.

Internet-based CPUs are pooled to enable multi-threading.

The dedicated computing resources of each client are pooled together in a colocation facility.

Placing Internet (“cloud”) data centers near multiple sources of energy, such as hydroelectric dams.

None of the above.

32. The containment phase of the incident response lifecycle requires taking systems offline.

False

True

33. How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

34. Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

Secure multi-party computation

Differential privacy

Encryption

Model hardening

35. Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

It is used for load balancing VMs

It enhances VM performance significantly

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

36. Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

37. Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

The cloud consumer

The majority is covered by the consumer

It depends on the agreement

The responsibility is split equally

The cloud provider

38. Which of the following best describes a key aspect of cloud risk management?

A structured approach for performance optimization of cloud services

A structured approach to identifying, assessing, and addressing risks

A structured approach to establishing the different what/if scenarios for cloud vs on-premise decisions

A structured approach to SWOT analysis

39. A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

False

True

40. Which governance domain deals with evaluating how cloud computing affects compliance with internal security policies and various legal requirements, such as regulatory and legislative?

Legal Issues: Contracts and Electronic Discovery

Infrastructure Security

Compliance and Audit Management

Information Governance

Governance and Enterprise Risk Management

Page 5 of 9

41. What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

42. A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

Infrastructures as a Service

A Private Cloud

A Community Cloud

A Hybrid Cloud

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

43. Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Local backup

Multi-region resiliency

Single-region resiliency

High Availability within one data center

44. Why is consulting with stakeholders important for ensuring cloud security strategy alignment?

IT simplifies the cloud platform selection process

It reduces the overall cost of cloud services.

It ensures that the strategy meets diverse business requirements.

It ensures compliance with technical standards only.

45. What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

Encryption

Organization

Knowledge management

IDS

Insulation

46. Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

Firewalls

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

47. CCM: The Cloud Service Delivery Model Applicability column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

Mappings to well-known standards and frameworks

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

48. APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

False

True

49. What key activities are part of the preparation phase in incident response planning?

Implementing encryption and access controls

Establishing a response process, training, communication plans, and infrastructure evaluations

Creating incident reports and post-incident reviews

Developing malware analysis procedures and penetration testing

50. CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

True

False

Page 6 of 9

51. How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

Integrated development environments

Updated threat and trust models

No modification is needed

Just-in-time compilers

Both B and C

52. Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

More physical control over assets and processes.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

None of the above.

53. What goal is most directly achieved by implementing controls and policies that aim to provide a complete view of data use and exposure in a cloud environment?

Enhancing data governance and compliance

Simplifying cloud service integrations

Increasing cloud data processing speed

Reducing the cost of cloud storage

54. Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

55. Use elastic servers when possible and move workloads to new instances.

False

True

56. How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

It consolidates logs into a single location.

It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.

It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.

It automatically resolves all detected security threats.

57. Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

Analyzing management plane logs

Regularly backing up data

Isolating the compromised system

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

58. Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

Conceptual models or frameworks

Design patterns

Controls models or frameworks

Reference architectures

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

59. Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Reliability

Security

Performance

Scalability

60. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

To provide tools for automated security management

Page 7 of 9

61. How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

Allowing faster data recovery and response

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

62. ENISA: An example high risk role for malicious insiders within a Cloud Provider includes

Sales

Marketing

Legal counsel

Auditors

Accounting

63. If in certain litigations and investigations, the actual cloud application or environment itself is relevant to resolving the dispute in the litigation or investigation, how is the information likely to be obtained?

It may require a subpoena of the provider directly

It would require a previous access agreement

It would require an act of war

It would require a previous contractual agreement to obtain the application or access to the environment

It would never be obtained in this situation

64. If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

False

True

65. What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

A network of servers connected to execute processes

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

A single software application hosted on the cloud

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

66. What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

Negotiating shared responsibilities

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

67. What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

Automating incident response procedures

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

Continuous monitoring of configurations

Managing user access permissions

68. CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CC

This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

69. When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

False

True

70. What is a common characteristic of default encryption provided by cloud providers for data at rest?

It is not available without an additional premium service

It always requires the customer's own encryption keys

It uses the cloud provider's keys, often at no additional cost

It does not support encryption for data at rest

Page 8 of 9

71. When designing a cloud-native application that requires scalable and durable data storage, which storage option should be primarily considered?

Network Attached Storage (NAS)

Block storage

File storage

Object storage

72. Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

73. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of cloud-native security breaches?

Inability to monitor cloud infrastructure for threats

IAM failures

Lack of encryption for data at rest

Vulnerabilities in cloud provider's physical infrastructure

74. CCM: In the CCM tool, “Encryption and Key Management” is an example of which of the following?

Risk Impact

Domain

Control Specification

75. Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

False

True

76. Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Code Review

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

Unit Testing

Functional Testing

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

77. Which of the following is a common security issue associated with serverless computing environments?

High operational costs

Misconfigurations

Limited scalability

Complex deployment pipelines

78. When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

Full-read access without any approval process

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

79. What item below allows disparate directory services and independent security domains to be

interconnected?

Coalition

Cloud

Intersection

Union

Federation

80. ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

Data protection

Professional negligence

Globalization

Intellectual property

Outsourcing services and changes in control

Page 9 of 9

81. Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

Database encryption

Media encryption

Asymmetric encryption

Object encryption

Client/application encryption

82. What is one of the primary advantages of including Static Application Security Testing (SAST) in Continuous Integration (CI) pipelines?

Identifies code vulnerabilities early in the development

Increases the speed of deployment to production

Improves runtime performance of the application

Enhances the user interface of the application

83. In a cloud context, what does entitlement refer to in relation to a user's permissions?

The authentication methods a user is required to use when accessing the cloud environment.

The level of technical support a user is entitled to from the cloud service provider.

The resources or services a user is granted permission to access in the cloud environment.

The ability for a user to grant access permissions to other users in the cloud environment.

84. All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

False

True

85. What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

The language of the data and how it affects the user

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

The actual size of the data and the storage format

86. What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Risk assessment

Audit

Penetration testing

Incident response

87. What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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