Valid CTPRP Exam Dumps are Your best Choice to Pass

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September 16, 2025

If you are looking to take your career in Third Party Risk Management to the next level, the CTPRP certification is an excellent option. To prepare for the CTPRP exam, you need to have a deep understanding of Shared Assessments products and how to configure them. The best way to prepare for the exam is by using CTPRP exam dumps questions, which give you a better understanding of the format of the exam. This will help you become familiar with the types of questions you can expect on the actual CTPRP exam, and it will give you a chance to practice your test-taking skills. Test free online CTPRP exam dumps questions below.

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1. Which statement is TRUE regarding the tools used in TPRM risk analyses?

Risk treatment plans define the due diligence standards for third party assessments

Risk ratings summarize the findings in vendor remediation plans

Vendor inventories provide an up-to-date record of high risk relationships across an organization

Risk registers are used for logging and tracking third party risks

2. Which statement is FALSE when describing the differences between security vulnerabilities and security defects?

A security defect is a security flaw identified in an application due to poor coding practices

Security defects should be treated as exploitable vulnerabilities

Security vulnerabilities and security defects are synonymous

A security defect can become a security vulnerability if undetected after migration into production

3. Which of the following data safeguarding techniques provides the STRONGEST assurance that data does not identify an individual?

Data masking

Data encryption

Data anonymization

Data compression

4. During the contract negotiation process for a new vendor, the vendor states they have legal obligations to retain data for tax purposes. However, your company policy requires data return or destruction at contract termination.

Which statement provides the BEST approach to address this conflict?

A. Determine if a policy exception and approval is required, and require that data safeguarding obligations continue after termination

B. Change the risk rating of the vendor to reflect a higher risk tier

C. Insist the vendor adheres to the policy and contract provisions without exception

D. Conduct an assessment of the vendor's data governance and records management program

5. The following statements reflect user obligations defined in end-user device policies EXCEPT:

A statement specifying the owner of data on the end-user device

A statement that defines the process to remove all organizational data, settings and accounts alt off boarding

A statement detailing user responsibility in ensuring the security of the end-user device

A statement that specifies the ability to synchronize mobile device data with enterprise systems

6. If a system requires ALL of the following for accessing its data: (1) a password, (2) a security token, and (3) a user's fingerprint, the system employs:

Biometric authentication

Challenge/Response authentication

One-Time Password (OTP) authentication

Multi-factor authentication

7. Which statement is NOT an accurate reflection of an organizations requirements within an enterprise information security policy?

Security policies should define the organizational structure and accountabilities for oversight

Security policies should have an effective date and date of last review by management

Security policies should be changed on an annual basis due to technology changes

Security policies should be organized based upon an accepted control framework

8. Which statement is TRUE regarding defining vendor classification or risk tiering in a TPRM program?

Vendor classification and risk tiers are based upon residual risk calculations

Vendor classification and risk tiering should only be used for critical third party relationships

Vendor classification and corresponding risk tiers utilize the same due diligence standards for controls evaluation based upon policy

Vendor classification and risk tier is determined by calculating the inherent risk associated with outsourcing a specific product or service

9. Which of the following methods of validating pre-employment screening attributes is appropriate due to limitations of international or state regulation?

Reviewing evidence of web search of social media sites

Providing and sampling complete personnel files to demonstrate unique screening results

Requiring evidence of drug testing

Requesting evidence of the performance of pre-employment screening when permitted by law

10. Which of the following actions is an early step when triggering an Information Security Incident Response Program?

Implementing processes for emergency change control approvals

Requiring periodic changes to the vendor's contract for breach notification

Assessing the vendor's Business Impact Analysis (BIA) for resuming operations

Initiating an investigation of the unauthorized disclosure of data

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11. Which statement provides the BEST description of inherent risk?

inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can incur when there is an absence of controls

Inherent risk is the level of risk triggered by outsourcing & product or service

Inherent risk is the amount of risk an organization can accept based on their risk tolerance

Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists with all of the necessary controls in place

12. An outsourcer's vendor risk assessment process includes all of the following EXCEPT:

Establishing risk evaluation criteria based on company policy

Developing risk-tiered due diligence standards

Setting remediation timelines based on the severity level of findings

Defining assessment frequency based on resource capacity

13. Which of the following factors is MOST important when assessing the risk of shadow IT in organizational security?

The organization maintains adequate policies and procedures that communicate required controls for security functions

The organization requires security training and certification for security personnel

The organization defines staffing levels to address impact of any turnover in security roles

The organization's resources and investment are sufficient to meet security requirements

14. Which statement BEST reflects the factors that help you determine the frequency of cyclical assessments?

Vendor assessments should be conducted during onboarding and then be replaced by continuous monitoring

Vendor assessment frequency should be based on the level of risk and criticality of the vendor to your operations as determined by their vendor risk score

Vendor assessments should be scheduled based on the type of services/products provided

Vendor assessment frequency may need to be changed if the vendor has disclosed a data breach

15. Which vendor statement provides the BEST description of the concept of least privilege?

We require dual authorization for restricted areas

We grant people access to the minimum necessary to do their job

We require separation of duties for performance of high risk activities

We limit root and administrator access to only a few personnel

16. Which of the following is a positive aspect of adhering to a secure SDLC?

Promotes a “check the box" compliance approach

A process that defines and meets both the business requirements and the security requirements

A process that forces quality code repositories management

Enables the process if system code is managed in different IT silos

17. The primary disadvantage of Single Sign-On (SSO) access control is:

The impact of a compromise of the end-user credential that provides access to multiple systems is greater

A single password is easier to guess and be exploited

Users store multiple passwords in a single repository limiting the ability to change the password

Vendors must develop multiple methods to integrate system access adding cost and complexity

18. You are assessing your organization's Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (BR/BCP) requirements based on the shift to remote work.

Which statement is LEAST reflective of current practices in business resiliency?

Third party service providers should be included in the company’s exercise and testing program based on the criticality of the outsourced business function

The right to require participation in testing with third party service providers should be included in the contract

The contract is the only enforceable control to stipulate third party service provider obligations for DR/BCP since both programs were triggered by the pandemic

Management should request and receive artifacts that Gemonstrate successful test results and any remediation action plans

19. Which set of procedures is typically NOT addressed within data privacy policies?

Procedures to limit access and disclosure of personal information to third parties

Procedures for handling data access requests from individuals

Procedures for configuration settings in identity access management

Procedures for incident reporting and notification

20. The BEST way to manage Fourth-Nth Party risk is:

Include a provision in the vender contract requiring the vendor to provide notice and obtain written consent before outsourcing any service

Include a provision in the contract prohibiting the vendor from outsourcing any service which includes access to confidential data or systems

Incorporate notification and approval contract provisions for subcontracting that require evidence of due diligence as defined by a TPRM program

Require the vendor to maintain a cyber-insurance policy for any service that is outsourced which includes access to confidential data or systems

Page 3 of 3

21. You are reviewing assessment results of workstation and endpoint security.

Which result should trigger more investigation due to greater risk potential?

Use of multi-tenant laptops

Disabled printing and USB devices

Use of desktop virtualization

Disabled or blocked access to internet

22. 1.When defining due diligence requirements for the set of vendors that host web applications which of the following is typically NOT part of evaluating the vendor's patch management controls?

The capability of the vendor to apply priority patching of high-risk systems

Established procedures for testing of patches, service packs, and hot fixes prior to installation

A documented process to gain approvals for use of open source applications

The existence of a formal process for evaluation and prioritization of known vulnerabilities

23. Which of the following components are typically NOT part of a cloud hosting vendor assessment program?

Reviewing the entity's image snapshot approval and management process

Requiring security services documentation and audit attestation reports

Requiring compliance evidence that provides the definition of patching responsibilities

Conducting customer performed penetration tests

24. Which type of external event does NOT trigger an organization ta prompt a third party contract provisions review?

Change in company point of contact

Business continuity event

Data breach/privacy incident

Change in regulations

25. Upon completion of a third party assessment, a meeting should be scheduled with which of the following resources prior to sharing findings with the vendor/service provider to approve remediation plans:

CISO/CIO

Business Unit Relationship Owner

internal Audit

C&O

26. When measuring the operational performance of implementing a TPRM program, which example is MOST likely to provide meaningful metrics?

logging the number of exceptions to existing due diligence standards

Measuring the time spent by resources for task and corrective action plan completion

Calculating the average time to remediate identified corrective actions

Tracking the number of outstanding findings

27. Which statement is FALSE regarding the risk factors an organization may include when defining TPRM compliance requirements?

Organizations include TPRM compliance requirements within vendor contracts, and periodically review and update mandatory contract provisions

Organizations rely on regulatory mandates to define and structure TPRM compliance requirements

Organizations incorporate the use of external standards and frameworks to align and map TPRM compliance requirements to industry practice

Organizations define TPRM policies based on the company’s risk appetite to shape requirements based on the services being outsourced

28. Which statement is FALSE regarding the primary factors in determining vendor risk classification?

The geographic area where the vendor is located may trigger specific regulatory obligations

The importance to the outsourcer's recovery objectives may trigger a higher risk tier

The type and volume of personal data processed may trigger a higher risk rating based on the criticality of the systems

Network connectivity or remote access may trigger a higher vendor risk classification only for third parties that process personal information

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